If \(A\) and \(B\) are events such that \(\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A}/\mathrm{B})=\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{B}/\mathrm{A})\neq 0\), t…
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If \(A\) and \(B\) are events such that \(\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A}/\mathrm{B})=\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{B}/\mathrm{A})\neq 0\), then :
✓ Correct answer: d)
\(\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A})=\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{B})\)
Explanation
We know that, \(P\left(A∣B\right)=\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(B)}\),
\(P\left(B∣A\right)=\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(A)}\)
Now,
\(P\left(A∣B\right)=P\left(B∣A\right)\\ \Rightarrow \frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(A)}\)
Since \(P\left(A∣B\right)\neq 0\)\(\Rightarrow P\left(A\cap B\right)\neq 0\).
Therefore,
\(P\left(A\cap B\right)\cdot P\left(A\right)=P\left(A\cap B\right)\cdot P\left(B\right)\\ \Rightarrow P\left(A\right)=P\left(B\right)\)
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