Current Affairs
262 solved Defence Current Affairs previous year questions on Current Affairs, each with the correct answer and a full explanation.
Q1
Who was the first Indian to win the World Amateur Billiards title?
✓ Correct answer: c) Wilson Jones
ExplanationWilson Lionel Garton Jones was a professional billiards player from India.He made three unsuccessful attempts at the world title, starting in 1951 in London, followed by the world championships in Calcutta in 1952 and Sydney in 1954. However, in 1958, when the world championship returned to Calcutta, Jones found his form.At the Great Eastern Hotel in Calcutta, he achieved a major upset in billiards by becoming the first Asian to win the championship.Jones holds the distinction of being the first Indian to become a World Champion in any sport.Hence, the correct answer is option C.
Q2
What is the country of origin of the winner of the 2023 International Booker Prize?
✓ Correct answer: a) Bulgaria
ExplanationThe winner of the 2023 International Booker Prize, Georgi Gospodinov, is from Bulgaria.He won the prestigious award for his novel "Time Shelter," making him the first Bulgarian author to receive this honor.The novel explores themes of memory and nostalgia, capturing the judges' acclaim.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q3
Identify the airline that is a joint venture between Tata Sons and Singapore Airlines?
✓ Correct answer: a) Vistara Airlines
ExplanationVistara is a joint venture of Tata Sons Private Limited and Singapore Airlines Limited (SIA), wherein Tata Sons holds 51% stake in partnership and Singapore Airlines owns 49% stake.The company is registered as TATA SIA Airlines Limited.It combines the Tata group's extensive knowledge of the Indian market with Singapore Airlines' expertise in international aviation.Launched in 2015, Vistara aims to provide premium service and enhance the air travel experience in India.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q4
Which sport was introduced for the first time in the Commonwealth Games of 2022?
✓ Correct answer: a) Women’s cricket
ExplanationThe sport introduced for the first time in the Commonwealth Games of 2022 was Women's cricket.Women's cricket made its debut at the 2022 Commonwealth Games on July 29, with the final being played on August 7, 2022. The 2022 Commonwealth Games were held in Birmingham, England.This was a significant addition to the games, marking the first time cricket was included in the Commonwealth Games since the 1998 edition in Kuala Lumpur.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q5
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
✓ Correct answer: b) Nag Missile - Surface-to-surface and air-to- surface
ExplanationNag Missile - Surface-to-surface and air- to-surface: This pair is not correctly matched.The Nag Missile is an anti-tank guided missile developed by India, designed primarily for surface-to-surface (launched from land-based platforms) and air-to-surface (launched from helicopters) roles, but it is not classified as a general surface-to-surface or air-to- surface missile.The other pairs, Barak missile and Nirbhay missile, are correctly matched with their respective roles.Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Q6
Which country announced the introduction of the Debbie Hockley Medal to honour the outstanding female cricketer?
✓ Correct answer: b) New Zealand
ExplanationNew Zealand announced the introduction of the Debbie Hockley Medal to honor the outstanding female cricketer.This award is named after Debbie Hockley, one of New Zealand's greatest female cricketers, recognizing her contributions to the sport and celebrating excellence in women's cricket.Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Q7
Barak - 8 Missile (next generation) has been developed by India in collaboration with which of the following countries?
✓ Correct answer: c) Israel
ExplanationBarak-8, also known as the next- generation missile, has been developed by India in collaboration with Israel.This surface-to-air missile system is designed to defend against a variety of airborne threats, including aircraft, helicopters, anti-ship missiles, and UAVs.The collaboration involves India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI), combining their expertise to enhance the missile's capabilities and strengthen both nations' defense systems.Hence, the correct answer is option (C).
Q8
“Kavach” system introduced by Indian Railways is a/an?
✓ Correct answer: c) Automatic Train Protection System
ExplanationThe "Kavach" system introduced by Indian Railways is an Automatic Train Protection System.It is designed to prevent train collisions, signal passing at danger, and ensure the safety of passengers by automatically controlling train speed and applying brakes if the driver fails to do so.This technology enhances operational safety and efficiency, aiming to reduce the risk of accidents and improve overall train safety on Indian railways.Hence, the correct answer is option (C).
Q9
Consider the following statements regarding the AI Supercomputer 'AIRAWAT' and its significance in the context of India's AI endeavors:1. AIRAWAT's recent ranking of 75 th in the Top 500 Global Supercomputing List positions India as a leading nation in the field of AI supercomputing.2. The AI Research Analytics and Knowledge Dissemination Platform (AIRAWAT) is a Proof of Concept (PoC) with a peak compute capacity of 410 AI Petaflops Mixed Precision, integrated with PARAM Siddhi-AI, contributing to India's ambitious National Program on AI (NPAI).3. MeitY has outlined plans to scale AIRAWAT to a compute capacity of 1,000 AI Petaflops Mixed Precision, aligning with Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi's vision of leveraging technology and AI for the welfare of citizens and socio- economic growth. Select the correct statement(s) from the options below:
✓ Correct answer: d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation1. Statement 1: AIRAWAT's ranking of 75th in the Top 500 Global Supercomputing List does position India as a notable player in AI supercomputing.This recognition highlights India's progress and capabilities in the field of high-performance computing and AI.2. Statement 2: The AI Research Analytics and Knowledge Dissemination Platform (AIRAWAT) is indeed a Proof of Concept (PoC) with a peak compute capacity of 410 AI Petaflops Mixed Precision.This platform, integrated with PARAM Siddhi-AI, contributes significantly to India's National Program on AI (NPAI), showcasing the country's commitment to advancing AI research and development.3. Statement 3: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has plans to scale AIRAWAT to a compute capacity of 1,000 AI Petaflops Mixed Precision.This aligns with Prime Minister Narendra Modi's vision of leveraging technology and AI for the welfare of citizens and socio-economic growth, reflecting a strategic national effort to harness the power of AI for broader development goals.Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
Q10
Which of the following submarine is the fifth Scorpene-class vessel commissioned by the Indian Navy?
✓ Correct answer: b) INS Vagir
ExplanationIndian Navy's fifth stealth Scorpene class Submarine INS Vagir was commissioned into Indian Navy on 23 January 2023 at Naval Dockyard Mumbai in presence of Admiral R Hari Kumar CNS, the Chief Guest for ceremony.INS Vagir will form part of WNC Submarine fleet.Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Q11
Who won 2023 Dadasaheb Phalke Award?
✓ Correct answer: c) Waheeda Rehman
ExplanationVeteran actor Waheeda Rehman has been chosen as the recipient of the 53rd Dadasaheb Phalke Award, India's highest film honor.Rehman, known for her beauty and acting skills, has left an indelible mark on Indian cinema.Hence, the correct answer is option (C).
Q12
The Operation Zindagi was launched for:
✓ Correct answer: c) Rescue operation in Silkyara Bend - Barkot tunnel collapse
ExplanationThe state government initiated Operation Zindagi, a monumental and extraordinary rescue mission aimed at saving 41 workers who were trapped for 17 days following the collapse of the Silkyara Bend - Barkot tunnel in Uttarakhand, India.Hence, the correct answer is option (C).
Q13
Which country does the C295 Airbus Company belong to?
✓ Correct answer: c) Spain
ExplanationThe C-295 aircraft is a joint venture between India and Spain.Under the contractual agreement, Airbus will deliver the first 16 aircraft in 'fly-away' condition from its final assembly line in Seville, Spain.The remaining 40 aircraft will be manufactured and assembled by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) in India as part of an industrial partnership between the two companies.Hence, the correct answer is option (C).
Q14
Operation Vajra Prahar, which is a bilateral Indo-US Joint Special Forces exercise, was held in?
✓ Correct answer: a) Umroi
ExplanationThe 14th edition of the Indo-US Joint Special Forces exercise, "VAJRA PRAHAR 2023," kicked off at the Joint Training Node in Umroi, Meghalaya.This exercise aims to enhance interoperability and share best practices between the special forces of both nations, focusing on various tactical operations and training scenarios.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q15
The joint exercise between India & Sri Lanka conducted in Pune in November 2023?
✓ Correct answer: c) Exercise Mitra Shakti
ExplanationThe Mitrashakti 2023 joint military drill, conducted in partnership between the Indian Army and the Sri Lankan Army, concluded at Pune's southern command foreign training node.Spanning 12 days, the exercise sought to enhance mutual comprehension of operational strategies and tactics.Hence, the correct answer is option (C).
Q16
Predator Drone was manufactured by which of the following country?
✓ Correct answer: d) United States
ExplanationRole: Remote piloted aircraft/unmanned combat aerial vehicle National origin: United States Manufacturer: General Atomics Aeronautical Systems The genius and innovative mind behind the predator or drone is Abraham E. Karem.He is also called as the Father of UAV Technology.UAV stands for Unmanned Aerial Vehicles.A Predator drone can carry around 1,700 kg of payload, including four missiles and around 450 kg of bombs, and travel 2,000 miles without refuelling.The drone can fly continuously or hover over targets for up to 35 hours, according to General Atomics Aeronautical Systems, its manufacturer.Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
Q17
Which of the following site is designated for the landing of Chandrayaan-3, India's lunar mission?
✓ Correct answer: a) Shiv Shakti Point
ExplanationChandrayaan-3's landing point on the Moon is known as Shiv Shakti Point.Statio Shiv Shakti or Shiv Shakti Point is the landing site of Chandrayaan-3, the third lunar mission of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).The mission's lander Vikram and rover Pragyan landed 600 km from the south pole of the Moon on 23 August 2023. Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q18
Who among the following is appointed as the head of the railway board?
✓ Correct answer: a) Jaya Varma Sinha
ExplanationThe appointment of Jaya Varma Sinha as the first woman Chairperson and CEO of the Railway Board marks a significant moment in the 170-year history of the rail transporter.Jaya Varma Sinha, who embraces challenges, assumes her role with determination and enthusiasm.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q19
Who among the following won the Satyajeet Ray Life time achievement award 2023?
✓ Correct answer: b) Michael Douglas
ExplanationRenowned Hollywood actor and producer Michael Douglas was honoured with the prestigious Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema at the 54th International Film Festival of India (IFFI) in Goa.Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Q20
Which of the following is the landing date of Chandrayaan-3?
✓ Correct answer: c) August 23, 2023
ExplanationChandrayaan-3, India's latest lunar mission, marked a historic achievement as it successfully landed near the Moon's south pole on August 23, 2023, making India the first country to accomplish this feat.Hence, the correct answer is option (C).
Q21
Which of the following is the motto of the G-20 Summit 2023?
✓ Correct answer: b) One Earth, One Family, One Future
ExplanationThe 18th Heads of State and Government Summit of the Group of 20 (G20) took place in September 2023 in New Delhi, India.The theme “One EarthOne FamilyOne Future” conveyed a message of striving for just and equitable growth for all in the world, during turbulent times, in a sustainable, holistic, responsible, and inclusive manner.Hence the correct answer is option (B).
Q22
Exercise BRIGHT STAR-23 was conducted between which of the following countries?
✓ Correct answer: d) United Sates and Egypt
ExplanationExercise Bright Star - 23 was created as a training exercise between the United States and Egypt during the 1977 Camp David Accord.Its first edition was conducted in 1980 and it expanded to include other countries in 1995. Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
Q23
Which of the following countries hosted BRICS 2023 summit?
✓ Correct answer: b) South Afcrica
ExplanationSouth Africa as BRICS Chair in 2023, Development, and Inclusive Multilateralism'.The theme emphasises the continued value of BRICS as a partnership of leading emerging markets and developing countries providing leadership and momentum towards global growth and sustainable development.The 1st BRIC summit was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia on 16 June 2009. BRIC group was renamed as BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) after South Africa was accepted as a full member at the BRIC Foreign Ministers' meeting in New York in September 2010. Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Q24
Which of the following is the name of the woman robot astronaut that will fly into space ahead of ISRO’s “Gaganyaan” mission?
✓ Correct answer: c) Vyommitra
ExplanationThe name of the female humanoid robot that will fly into space ahead of ISRO's “Gaganyaan” mission is Vyommitra.What is Vyommitra?Vyommitra is a female robot designed for space travel by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).Her name comes from the Sanskrit words Vyōma meaning "space" and Mitra meaning "friend".What will Vyommitra do?Vyommitra will accompany Indian astronauts on space missions and participate in uncrewed experimental missions before the crewed flights.She will also test spacecraft safety.When will Vyommitra fly?Vyommitra will take her first flight on the Gaganyaan G-2 unmanned mission in | | Defence 2025. Where was Vyommitra designed?Vyommitra was designed at the Vikram Sarabhai Space Center in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.What is Gaganyaan?Gaganyaan is India's first human manned space flight, carrying Indian astronauts into space.Hence, the correct answer is option (C).
Q25
Which of them was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2023?
✓ Correct answer: a) Korvi Rakshand
ExplanationKorvi Rakshand from Bangladesh, Eugenio Lemos from Timor-Leste, Miriam Coronel-Ferrer from the Philippines, and Dr. Ravi Kannan R. from India were honoured as recipients of the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2023. In addition to the prestigious recognition, each awardee received a certificate, a medallion featuring the likeness of the late President Ramon Magsaysay, and a monetary prize of USD 50,000. These individuals were lauded for their outstanding contributions in fields ranging from education and community development to peacebuilding and public health, demonstrating exemplary leadership and dedication to improving the lives of others.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q26
Which airline became Uttar Pradesh's first scheduled airline?
✓ Correct answer: c) Shankh Air
ExplanationShankh Air will operate from its hubs in Lucknow and the upcoming Jewar Airport in Noida, as well as New Delhi.Shankh Air is the first scheduled airline to launch from Uttar Pradesh.India's newest airline, Shankh Air, has received approval from the Civil Aviation Ministry to operate in the country.Hence the correct answer is option C.
Q27
Which cricketer is the only one to score double centuries in four consecutive Test matches?
✓ Correct answer: a) Virat Kohli
ExplanationVirat Kohli is the only cricketer to have scored double centuries in four consecutive Test series, making him the only player to achieve this remarkable feat.The Record: Kohli achieved this between 2016 and 2017, starting with a double century against the West Indies, followed by another against New Zealand, England and Bangladesh.Significance: Kohli's accomplishment surpassed the previous records held by Don Bradman and Rahul Dravid, who each had three consecutive double centuries.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q28
Where was the 5th AITIGA Joint Committee meeting, focused on ASEAN-India economic cooperation, held?
✓ Correct answer: c) Jakarta
ExplanationThe 5th AITIGA Joint Committee meeting marked a significant milestone in ASEAN-India economic cooperation.It was held in Jakarta from July 29 to August 1, 2024. Discussions focused on reviewing and enhancing the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA).The meeting was co-chaired by Shri Rajesh Agrawal, Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce, India, and Ms. Mastura Ahmad Mustafa, Deputy Secretary General (Trade), Ministry of Investment, Trade & Industry, Malaysia.Delegates from all 10 ASEAN countries and India participated in the meeting.Hence the correct answer is option C
Q29
Which state is the host of National SARAS mela 2025?
✓ Correct answer: c) Kerala
ExplanationThe National Saras Mela 2025 was held at Chengannur, Kerala, from January 20 to 31, at the Chengannur municipal stadium.Organized by the Kudumbashree Mission, it will promote rural products on a unified platform.The mela features 300 stalls from 28 States, including 200 from Kerala, showcasing handcrafted items, jewellery, textiles, and home decor.It provides self-help groups, neighborhood groups, and artisans a platform to reach urban markets.Hence, the correct answer is option (C).
Q30
In which state was the Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) first launched?
✓ Correct answer: a) Rajasthan
ExplanationAntyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) is a Government sponsored scheme to provide highly subsidised food to millions of the poorest families.It was launched by the government on 25 December 2000 and first implemented in Rajasthan.About Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY): The Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) is a government program that provides subsidized food to the poorest families in India.It was launched in 2000 to help ensure food security.How does it work?The AAY scheme is part of the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).Eligible families receive a unique Antyodaya Ration Card.The card allows them to buy food at subsidized rates from fair price shops.The AAY scheme provides 35 kg of food grains per month to each eligible family.This includes rice, wheat, and coarse grains.Who is eligible?The AAY scheme is for the poorest families in the country, as identified by the Below Poverty Line (BPL).How is it implemented?The Food Corporation of India supplies the food.The state government is responsible for transportation costs and other incidental charges.What are the benefits?The AAY scheme has helped reduce hunger and malnutrition.It has also helped improve the food security of the country.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q31
The Ministry of Defence (MoD) signed a contract with which company to procure AL- 31FP aero-engines for the Su-30MKI aircraft for over ₹26,000 crore?
✓ Correct answer: a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
ExplanationThe Ministry of Defence (MoD) signed a contract with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) on September 09, 2024, to procure 240 AL-31FP aero-engines for the Su-30MKI aircraft.The contract is valued at over ₹26,000 crore and will support the operational capability of the Indian Air Force.These engines will be manufactured by the Koraput Division of HAL, with 30 engines supplied annually over the next eight years.Hence, the correct answer is option A.
Q32
Which of the following aircraft was not developed by Russia?
✓ Correct answer: b) Rafale
ExplanationRafale: The Rafale was not developed by Russia but was developed by France.The Rafale is a French twin-engine, multirole fighter aircraft developed by Dassault Aviation.It was introduced in 2001. The Rafale has semi-stealth capabilities and can carry nuclear weapons.It is considered a 4.5 generation fighter aircraft.Mig-29: The Mig-29 is a fourth-generation jet fighter aircraft designed in the Soviet Union.It does not have the advanced stealth, sensor fusion, and avionics of fifth- generation fighters.Sukhoi-30: The Sukhoi-30 is a multirole air superiority fighter designed by Sukhoi Aviation Corporation.It was developed in the Soviet Union.The Indian Air Force uses the Sukhoi-30 MkI variant.Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Q33
What is the name of the mascot for the Kho Kho World Cup 2025?
✓ Correct answer: c) Tejas and Tara
ExplanationThe official mascots of the Kho Kho World Cup are Tejas and Tara.The Kho Kho World Cup trophy for the inaugural edition was unveiled by these mascots during a grand ceremony at the IGI Stadium, Delhi.The choice of Tara and Tejas represents energy, team spirit, and speed, which are essential characteristics of the game of Kho Kho.Hence the correct answer is option C.
Q34
Chinook is which of the following types of aircraft?
✓ Correct answer: b) Heavy-lift Helicopter
ExplanationThe Chinook is a heavy-lift helicopter.It's used for transporting troops, cargo, and equipment, as well as for search and rescue, disaster relief, and more.How it's used: The U.S. Army uses the Chinook as its primary heavy troop and supply transport aircraft.The Chinook is used for medical evacuation, search and rescue, parachute drops, disaster relief, and aircraft recovery.The Indian Air Force uses the Chinook as a helicopter.How it's designed: The Chinook is a tandem-rotor helicopter with twin engines.It has a digital cockpit management system.It has a triple hook system for stability and carrying multiple external loads.It has a monolithic airframe with vibration reduction.History: The Chinook was developed by the American aerospace company Boeing | | Defence Vertol in the 1960s.It's now manufactured by Boeing Defense, Space & Security.Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Q35
Which of the following tanks was not developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)?
✓ Correct answer: b) Bhishma (T-90)
ExplanationArjun – Developed by DRDO; it is India’s indigenously designed main battle tank (MBT).Bhishma (T-90) – Not developed by DRDO; it is a Russian-origin T-90 tank that was imported and later assembled in India by the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB).Ajeya (T-72) – A modified version of the Soviet T-72 tank, assembled in India, but the modifications were not developed by DRDO.Zorawar – A light tank being developed by DRDO for high-altitude warfare, particularly for deployment in Ladakh.Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Q36
Where was the New Delhi World Book Fair 2025 held?
✓ Correct answer: d) Pragati Maidan
ExplanationThe 2025 New Delhi World Book Fair (NDWBF) was held at the Bharat Mandapam in Pragati Maidan, New Delhi, specifically in the newly constructed Halls 2-6 (Ground Floor), from February 1st to 9th.The New Delhi World Book Fair (NDWBF), an annual literary event organized by the National Book Trust (NBT) in association with the India Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO), is a major calendar event for publishers, authors, and book enthusiasts, held at Pragati Maidan, New Delhi.Here's a more detailed breakdown: Organizer: National Book Trust, India (under the Ministry of Education, Government of India) Co-organizer: India Trade Promotion Organization (ITPO) Venue: Bharat Mandapam, Pragati Maidan, New Delhi Dates and Time: February 1st to 9th, 2025; 11:00 a.m. to 8:00 p.m. Theme: "We the People of India" Celebrating 75 years of the Republic of India Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
Q37
Which Indian writer was awarded the International Booker Prize for the year 2025?
✓ Correct answer: c) Banu Mushtaq
ExplanationAnswer: C) Banu Mushtaq Explanation: In 2025, Banu Mushtaq’s short story collection Heart Lamp (translated by Deepa Bhasthi) won the International Booker, marking two historic firsts: First Kannada-language winner.First short-story collection to win the award.International Booker is awarded to the work + translator.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q38
Who is the current President of Sri Lanka, as of March 2025?
✓ Correct answer: c) Anura Kumara Dissanayake
ExplanationAnura Kumara Dissanayake, commonly referred to by his initials AKD, is a Sri Lankan politician who has been the tenth and current president of Sri Lanka since 2024. Anura Kumara Dissanayake is the 10th and current president, having assumed office on 23 September 2024, after being declared the winner of the 2024 presidential election.Hence, the correct answer is option (C).
Q39
Where was India's first Grain ATM inaugurated?
✓ Correct answer: b) Bhubaneswar
ExplanationIndia's first Grain ATM, also known as "Annapurti," was inaugurated at Mancheswar in Bhubaneswar, Odisha. | | Defence Here's a more detailed account: Location: The "Annapurti" Grain ATM, designed and developed by the World Food Programme India, is located at Mancheswar in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.Purpose: This initiative aims to provide convenient and efficient access to essential food grains for Public Distribution System beneficiaries.Significance: It's India's first round-the-clock grain dispensing machine, offering instant access to rice, wheat, or millet.Functionality: The machine uses biometric authentication for security and offers a consistent way for beneficiaries to access their food rations.Development: The Grain ATM was introduced with the World Food Programme under the National Food Security Programme.Benefits: The Grain ATM can dispense up to 50 kg of grain in 5 minutes, reducing waiting times by 70%.Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Q40
Where was the inaugural Joint Commanders' Conference (JCC) held in?
✓ Correct answer: c) Lucknow
ExplanationThe maiden Joint Commanders' Conference (JCC) commenced at Lucknow on 4 September 2024, under the theme 'Sashakt and Surakshit Bharat: Transforming Armed Forces'.The conference is focused on shaping the future of India's military to adapt to the changing operational milieu.Hence, the correct answer is option C.
Q41
Which new district has been carved out of Prayagraj in Uttar Pradesh?
✓ Correct answer: d) Mahakumbh Mela District
ExplanationThe Uttar Pradesh government issued a notification under Section 2 (th) of the Uttar Pradesh Prayagraj Mela Authority, Prayagraj Act, 2017. This notification formally declares the creation of a new administrative district called the Mahakumbh Mela District to manage the Mahakumbh 2025 efficiently.Hence the correct answer is option D.
Q42
Which of the following ministries introduced the 'Rashtraparv' website?
✓ Correct answer: a) Ministry of Defence
ExplanationThe Rashtraparv Website & Mobile App was launched by Defence Secretary Rajesh Singh in New Delhi on 25 December 2024, on the occasion of Good Governance Day.Good Governance Day is observed every year since 2014 on the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.The Rashtraparv platform provides users with information about national events organized by the Ministry of Defence, such as Republic Day, Beating Retreat Ceremony, and Independence Day.It offers the live streaming of these national events for public viewing.The platform allows users to purchase tickets online for attending the events.It provides essential details related to seating arrangements and route maps of the events.The platform hosts a Tableau Management Portal to assist States/UTs, ministries, and departments in designing and finalizing their Republic Day tableaux.Hence, the correct answer is option A.
Q43
What is the theme for World Ozone Day 2024?
✓ Correct answer: b) Montreal Protocol: Advancing Climate Action
ExplanationThe theme for World Ozone Day 2024 is "Montreal Protocol: Advancing Climate Action," highlighting the Protocol's vital role in both safeguarding the ozone layer and addressing climate change.The Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987 to phase out ozone-depleting substances (ODS) such as CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons) and halons.These substances not only damage the ozone layer but are also potent greenhouse gases.By controlling them, the protocol indirectly mitigates global warming.The Kigali Amendment (2016) expanded the protocol’s scope to include the reduction of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), which are major contributors to climate change.Hence the correct answer is option B.
Q44
Which of the following is not an indigenous defense system or equipment of India?
✓ Correct answer: b) Bhishma
ExplanationLakshya: This is an indigenously developed pilotless target aircraft (PTA) by DRDO.It is used by the Indian Armed Forces for training and weapon practice.Bhishma: It's not completely indigenous."Bhishma" is the Indian name for the T- 90S main battle tank, which is a Russian-origin tank.Although some components are assembled or produced in India under license, it is not originally developed by India.Arjun: This is a fully indigenous main battle tank (MBT) developed by the DRDO.It is designed and manufactured in India.Zorawar: This is an indigenous light tank being developed by DRDO and Larsen & Toubro (L&T).It is designed for high-altitude warfare, particularly for deployment in Ladakh and Arunachal Pradesh.Zorawar is still under development but is fully indigenous in design and production.Hence the correct answer is option B.
Q45
Raja Ravi Varma is associated with which field?
✓ Correct answer: d) Painting
ExplanationRaja Ravi Varma was an Indian painter and artist who was associated with the field of painting.He is considered one of the greatest painters in the history of Indian art.Known for: His paintings and prints depict Indian subjects using European techniques His religious depictions of Hindu deities His works from Indian epic poetry and Puranas The affordable lithographs of his paintings Life and work: Born on April 29, 1848 in Kilimanoor, Travancore Died on October 2, 1906 in Attingal, Travancore Part of the royal family of Parappanad, Malappuram district Received the Kaisar-i-Hind Gold Medal in 1904 Notable works: Arjuna and Subhadra Shantanu and Matsyagandha Nair Woman Shakuntala Mohini playing with a ball A Lady Playing Swarbat | | Defence Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
Q46
Who among the following is the 2nd and the present Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) of India?
✓ Correct answer: b) General Anil Chauhan
ExplanationThe 2nd and present Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) of India is General Anil Chauhan.He assumed office on 30 September 2022, succeeding the late General Bipin Rawat General Anil Chauhan PVSM UYSM AVSM SM VSM (born 18 May 1961) is a four-star general of the Indian Army.He is the current and 2nd Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) of the Indian Armed Forces, since 30 September 2022. Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Q47
With reference to the “DAKSH” portal, consider the following statements:1. The portal was launched by the Reserve Bank of India.2. ‘DAKSH’ stands for the Reserve Bank’s Advanced Supervisory Monitoring System.3. It is a web-based workflow application for monitoring compliance requirements of supervised entities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✓ Correct answer: d) 1, 2 and 3
ExplanationThe DAKSH portal was launched by the Reserve Bank of India as part of its SupTech initiative. ‘DAKSH’ stands for Reserve Bank’s Advanced Supervisory Monitoring System.It is a web-based workflow application for monitoring compliance requirements of supervised entities.Its aim is to strengthen supervisory processes and promote better compliance culture in banks, NBFCs, and other financial institutions.
Q48
Where did the Shakti Exercise between India and France occur in May 2024?
✓ Correct answer: b) Meghalaya
ExplanationThe bilateral military exercise 'Shakti 2024' took place at the Eastern Command's Joint Training Node, located in Umroi, Meghalaya.Exercise Shakti is a biennial joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the French Army, conducted alternately in India and France.The 2024 edition focused on counter- terrorism operations, combat tactics, and enhancing interoperability between the two armies in semi-urban environments.Hence the correct answer is option B.
Q49
Which two states secured the top two ranks at the Sixth National Water Awards in 2025?
✓ Correct answer: a) Maharashtra and Gujarat
ExplanationThe National Water Awards are an initiative by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Government of India, to recognize excellence in water conservation, sustainable water management, community participation, and innovative practices across the country.These awards are presented annually in various categories such as Best State, Best District, Best Village Panchayat, Best Urban Local Body, Best School or College, and others.The aim is to encourage effective and sustainable water practices that ensure long-term water security.At the 6th edition of the National Water Awards (for the year 2024), the Best State category — which is one of the most prestigious recognitions — was awarded as follows: Maharashtra secured the first rank, being recognized as the best performing state in terms of water conservation and management efforts across various metrics.Gujarat secured the second rank, acknowledging its strong performance in state-level water initiatives and implementation of effective programs for water sustainability.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q50
World Polio Day is observed every year on October 24 to raise awareness about polio eradication. Which theme was selected for World Polio Day in 2025?
✓ Correct answer: a) End Polio: Every Child, Every Vaccine, Everywhere
Explanation“End Polio: Every Child, Every Vaccine, Everywhere” — this theme emphasizes the urgent need to ensure that every child in every part of the world receives the polio vaccine so that the disease can be eradicated completely.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q51
With reference to Aero India, Asia’s Largest Air Show, consider the following statements.1. Aero India is an annual air show and aviation exhibition held in Bengaluru and is organised by the Defence Exhibition Organisation under the Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence.2. Aero India 2025, the 15th edition of the event, had a broad theme, “The Runway to a Billion Opportunities”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✓ Correct answer: b) 2 only
ExplanationStatement 1: Incorrect Aero India is not an annual event.It is a biennial (held every two years) air show conducted in Bengaluru, Karnataka.It is organised by the Defence Exhibition Organisation (DEO) under the Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence, but the word annual makes the statement incorrect.Statement 2: Correct Aero India 2025 was the 15th edition of the event, and its theme was “The Runway to a Billion Opportunities.” Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Q52
The 22nd ASEAN–India Summit held in 2025 declared the year 2026 as which of the following?
✓ Correct answer: d) The ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation
ExplanationThe 22nd ASEAN–India Summit held in 2025 declared the year 2026 as the ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation.This declaration was made to deepen collaboration between India and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) in areas such as maritime security, trade, humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, and the blue economy, reflecting a stronger strategic partnership focused on maritime domains and regional stability.Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
Q53
What percentage of posts in the Supreme Court Bar Association (SCBA) must be reserved for women according to the recent Supreme Court directive?
✓ Correct answer: c) 33%
ExplanationAccording to the recent Supreme Court directive, the percentage of posts in the Supreme Court Bar Association (SCBA) that must be reserved for women is 33%.The Supreme Court mandated that at least one-third of the posts in the executive committee of the SCBA should be reserved for women, which translates to a minimum of 33%.Hence, the correct answer is option (C).
Q54
Which of the following countries is the manufacturer of Pilatus PC-7 aircraft?
✓ Correct answer: a) Switzerland
ExplanationThe Pilatus PC-7 Turbo Trainer is a low- wing tandem-seat training aircraft, designed and manufactured in Switzerland by Pilatus Aircraft.The aircraft is capable of all basic training functions, including aerobatics, instrument, tactical, and night flying.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q55
Who won the United World Wrestling rising star of the Year 2023?
✓ Correct answer: d) Antim Panghal
ExplanationThe 19-year-old Antim Panghal from Haryana becomes the UWW Women's Rising Stars of the Year 2023 for her exceptional performances, including her two women's World Under-20 Championship titles (2022 and 2023) in the 53kg category.Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
Q56
Who won the gold medal in the World Athletics Championships 2023?
✓ Correct answer: b) Neeraj Chopra
ExplanationNeeraj Chopra won the gold medal in the men's javelin throw event at the 2023 World Athletics Championships with a throw of 88.17 meters.He became the first Indian athlete to win a gold medal at the World Championships in javelin throw.Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Q57
Which fighter jet of the Indian Air Force successfully test-fired the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile?
✓ Correct answer: d) Sukhoi-30 MKI
ExplanationThe Sukhoi-30 MKI has been equipped to launch the BrahMos missile, specifically the air-launched variant known as BrahMos-A, allowing for long- range precision strikes against land and sea targets.The BrahMos missile, noted for its supersonic speed and precision, was fired from a Sukhoi fighter jet, demonstrating the IAF's capacity to deploy long-range BrahMos cruise missiles.Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
Q58
National Space Day is celebrated on which of the following date?
✓ Correct answer: c) 23rd August
ExplanationOn 23 August 2023, the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) reached a significant milestone by successfully landing Chandrayaan-3's lander and rover on the Moon.Recognizing this achievement, Prime Minister Narendra Modi proclaimed August 23 as "National Space Day" in India.Hence, the correct answer is option (C).
Q59
Which international alliance is heavily involved in the Orion 23 military exercise alongside the Indian Air Force?
✓ Correct answer: a) NATO
ExplanationThe Indian Air Force's Rafale fighter jets will be participating in a military exercise in France called Orion 23, which involves thousands of NATO troops.The exercise aims to enhance military cooperation and interoperability among participating nations.The Golden Arrows squadron, part of the Western Air Command, is likely to provide the aircraft for the exercise.The exercise includes multiple dimensions, such as ground troops, warships, aircraft carriers, and combat aircraft.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q60
Consider the following statements with reference to INS Jatayu:1. INS Jatayu is the new naval base established by the Indian Navy in the Lakshadweep Islands.2. It will serve as a naval detachment there, enhancing the Indian Navy's operational reach in the region. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
✓ Correct answer: c) Both 1 and 2
ExplanationKey Concept: Defence and Security Explanation: Naval Detachment Minicoy will be commissioned as INS Jatayu, an upgraded naval base by the Indian Navy to resolve to incrementally augment security infrastructure at the strategic Lakshadweep Islands.INS Jatayu will effectively be the country’s second naval base in Lakshadweep.India has had a naval detachment in Minicoy, the southernmost atoll of the Lakshwadeep archipelago, since the 1980s, The Navy’s first base on the islands, INS Dweeprakshak in Kavaratti, was commissioned in 2012. INS Jatayu is being commissioned days after the inauguration of an airstrip and a jetty that India has built on Agaléga, Mauritius.It will enhance the operational reach of the Navy in the Indian Ocean, a vital strategic imperative as China seeks to increase its footprint in the region.Hence, the correct answer is (C).
Q61
What is the theme for World Environment Day 2024?
✓ Correct answer: d) Land Restoration, Desertification, and Drought Resilience
ExplanationThe theme for World Environment Day 2024 is "Land restoration, desertification, and drought resilience".The slogan for 2024 is "Our land.Our future.World Environment Day is celebrated annually on June 5th, after it was established at the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment in 1972. Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
Q62
Which Indian brand sponsored the Netherlands men's cricket team for the ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2024?
✓ Correct answer: a) Amul
ExplanationThe Indian brand that sponsored the Netherlands men's cricket team for the ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2024 is Amul.Amul has a history of sponsoring cricket teams during ICC tournaments, including previous collaborations with the Netherlands national side.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q63
In the best Hindi film category which film won the 66th national award in 2020?
✓ Correct answer: b) Andhadhun
ExplanationThe Hindi film industry dominated the 66th National Film Awards, which were announced in New Delhi.AndhaDhun was named the best Hindi film of the year at the National Film Awards with Ayushmann Khurrana and Vicky Kaushal (Uri) sharing the best actor award.Keerthy Suresh won the best actress award (Mahanati).Hence, the correct answer is Option B i.e Andhadun.
Q64
The range of Agni - VI missile is ________.
✓ Correct answer: b) 11000 km - 12000 km
ExplanationAgni-VI is an MIRV-capable intercontinental ballistic missile under development by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.Agni-VI will be a four-stage intercontinental ballistic missile, which is in the hardware development phase, after its design phase was completed.Agni-VI missile is likely to carry up to 10 MIRV warheads and will have a strike range of 11,000- 12,000 km.A senior DRDO scientist said that the new generation Agni-VI missile will be sleeker, easily transportable and would be readily deployed.It will have the capability to be launched from submarine and from land-based launchers.Hence, the correct answer is Option B i.e 11000 km - 12000 km.
Q65
The 7th edition of the bilateral air exercise between India and France concluded at Air Force Station, Jodhpur on 12th November 2022. What was the name of the exercise?
✓ Correct answer: a) Garuda
ExplanationThe seventh edition of the bilateral air exercise between the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the French Air and Space Force (FASF), 'Exercise Garuda-VII' concluded at Air Force Station, Jodhpur on 12 November 2022. The FASF participated in the exercise with Rafale fighter aircraft and A-330 Multi Role Tanker Transport (MRTT) aircraft, while the IAF contingent comprised Su-30 MKI, Rafale, LCA 'Tejas' and Jaguar fighter aircraft.This fighter element was complemented by the IAF's Flight Refuelling Aircraft, AWACS and AEW&C, as well as Mi-17 helicopters and the newly inducted LCH 'Prachanda'.Exercise Garuda-VII provided the two Air Forces with the opportunity for professional interaction and sharing of operational knowledge and experience.With meticulous planning and execution of various phases of the exercise, personnel of the IAF and the FASF were exposed to realistic air combat simulations and the associated Combat Support Operations.Hence, the correct answer is Option A i.e Garuda.
Q66
In March 2023, Who is the Home Minister of India?
✓ Correct answer: b) Amit Shah
ExplanationThe Minister of Home Affairs is the head of the Ministry of Home Affairs of the Government of India.One of the senior-most officers in the Union Cabinet, the chief responsibility of the home minister is the maintenance of the internal security of India; the country's large police force comes under its jurisdiction.Ever since the time of independent India's first Home Minister, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the office has been seen as second in seniority only to the Prime Minister in the union cabinet.The current minister is Amit Shah of the Bharatiya Janata Party who has been in office since 31 May 2019. Hence, the correct answer is Option B i.e Amit Shah.
Q67
The joint naval exercise Varuna is between India and which of the following nations?
✓ Correct answer: c) France
ExplanationThe 21st Edition of the Bilateral Naval Exercise between India and France – Exercise Varuna commenced on the Western Seaboard.While the bilateral exercise between the two navies were initiated in 1993, it was christened as ‘VARUNA’ in 2001 and has become a hallmark of India – France strategic bilateral relationship.This edition will witness participation of indigenous guided missile stealth destroyer INS Chennai, guided missile frigate INS Teg, maritime patrol aircraft P- 8I and Dornier, integral helicopters and MiG29K fighter aircraft.The French Navy will be represented by the aircraft carrier Charles De Gaulle, frigates FS Forbin and Provence, support vessel FS Marne and maritime patrol aircraft Atlantique.It will witness advanced air defence exercises, tactical manoeuvres, surface firings, underway replenishment and other maritime operations.Hence, the correct answer is Option C i.e France.
Q68
Which of the following won the Vijay Hazare Trophy at the Narendra Modi Stadium in Ahmedabad, Gujarat?
✓ Correct answer: a) Saurashtra
ExplanationThe Vijay Hazare Trophy is an annual limited overs domestic cricket competition organised by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI).It involves the state and union territory teams which take part in the Ranji Trophy.The tournament had been played at zonal level only until 2002–03 when it was expanded to become a national competition.The most successful team since expansion is Tamil Nadu who have won the tournament five times.Saurashtra beat Maharashtra by 5 wickets in the final to win the Vijay Hazare Trophy at the Narendra Modi Stadium in Ahmedabad, Gujarat in 2023. Hence, the correct answer is Option A i.e Saurashtra.
Q69
In March 2023, Who is the Chief Minister of Gujarat?
✓ Correct answer: c) Bhupendra Patel
ExplanationThe current chief minister is Bhupendrabhai Patel of the BJP.He was elected for the post following the resignation of then incumbent Vijay Rupani, who was in the office since 7 August 2016. Narendra Modi holds the record for the longest-serving Chief Minister of Gujarat, with a remarkable tenure of twelve and a half years from 7th October 2001 to 22nd May 2014. Suresh Mehta served the shortest term as Chief Minister, lasting for only 334 days from 21st October 1995 to 19th September 1996. Anandiben Patel made history as the first woman Chief Minister of Gujarat, breaking gender barriers in politics.Hence, the correct answer is Option C i.e Bhupendra Patel.
Q70
Statue of Unity is located in which state?
✓ Correct answer: a) Gujarat
ExplanationThe Statue of Unity is the world's tallest statue, with a height of 182 metres ,located near Kevadia in the state of Gujarat, India.It depicts Indian statesman and independence activist Vallabhbhai Patel (1875–1950), who was the first deputy prime minister and home minister of independent India and an adherent of Mahatma Gandhi.Patel is highly respected for playing a significant role in the political integration of India.The statue is located in Gujarat on the Narmada River in the Kevadiya colony, facing the Sardar Sarovar Dam 100 kilometres (62 mi) southeast of the city of Vadodara.Hence, the correct answer is Option A i.e Gujarat.
Q71
Which of the following countries will host the 2023 women's T-20 Cricket World Cup?
✓ Correct answer: d) South Africa
ExplanationThe 2023 ICC Women's T20 World Cup is scheduled to be the eighth edition of the ICC Women's T20 World Cup tournament.It is scheduled to be held in South Africa.The 2023 ICC Men's Cricket World cup will be the 13th edition of the men's Cricket World Cup, scheduled to be hosted by India during October and November 2023. This will be the first time the competition is held completely in India.Three previous editions were partially hosted there - 1987, 1996, and 2011. Chairman of ICC: Greg Barclay.CEO of ICC: Geoff Allardice Headquarters of ICC: Dubai, United Arab Emirates.Hence, the correct answer is Option D i.e South Africa.
Q72
Which of the following country was the runner up of FIFA World Cup 2022?
✓ Correct answer: a) France
ExplanationThe correct answer is Option A i.e. France.Key Points Argentina won its third FIFA World Cup after defeating France in the final match in 2022. The 2022 World Cup was the first to take place in the Middle East after the FIFA awarded Qatar the right to host in 2010. Only eight countries had won any of the 21 previous World Cup tournaments.Italy and Germany have won FIFA World Cup four times, and Brazil has won it five times.
Q73
In which State is the Similipal Tiger Reserve Situated?
✓ Correct answer: a) Odisha
ExplanationSimlipal National Park is a national park and tiger reserve in the Mayurbhanj district in the Indian state of Odisha.It is part of the Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve, which includes three protected areas, Similipal Tiger Reserve, Hadgarh Wildlife Sanctuary and Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary.Simlipal National Park derives its name from the abundance of red silk cotton trees growing in the area.The park is home to Bengal tiger, Asian elephant, gaur, and chausingha.This protected area is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves since 2009. Hence, the correct answer is Option D i.e Odisha.
Q74
What was the name of the rover of Chandrayaan - 2?
✓ Correct answer: a) Pragyan
ExplanationChandrayaan-2 mission is a highly complex mission, which represents a significant technological leap compared to the previous missions of ISRO, which brought together an Orbiter, Lander and Rover with the goal of exploring south pole of the Moon.The Lander of Chandrayaan-2 was named Vikram after Dr Vikram A Sarabhai, the Father of the Indian Space Programme.It was designed to function for one lunar day, which is equivalent to about 14 Earth days.Chandrayaan-2’s Rover was a 6-wheeled robotic vehicle named as Pragyan, which translates to 'wisdom' in Sanskrit.Hence, the correct answer is Option A i.e Pragyan.
Q75
With which country does India conduct "Harimau Shakti" exercise?
✓ Correct answer: d) Malaysia
ExplanationHARIMAU SHAKTI is an annual training event between Indian and Malaysian armies which has been conducted since 2012. The Malaysian Army contingent comprises troops from 5th Royal Battalion of Malaysian Army.The Indian contingent is being represented by a Battalion of THE RAJPUT REGIMENT.It is aimed at enhancing military capability for conduct of Multi Domain Operations in a sub conventional scenario.During the exercise, both contingents will establish a Joint Command Post & establish an integrated surveillance grid along with a Joint Surveillance Centre.The Exercise will also witness employment of Drones/UAVs & Helicopters.Hence, the correct answer is Option D i.e Malaysia.
Q76
Recently, who has been appointed by the Government as Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)?
✓ Correct answer: d) Anil Chauhan
ExplanationThe Government of India has appointed Lt General Anil Chauhan (Retired) as the next Chief of Defence Staff (CDS).He will also function as a Secretary to the Department of Military Affairs.The CDS was created in 2019 for a dual role, as the most senior uniformed officer in rank (First among equals) and as a Secretary of the Department of Military Affairs.Since India’s first CDS General Bipin Rawat had died, the post has been vacant.The government amended the service rules of the armed forces to fill the vacancy.Hence, the correct asnwer is Option D i.e Anil Chauhan.
Q77
Which scheme has been approved by central government for recruitment of youth in armed forces?
✓ Correct answer: d) AGNIPATH
ExplanationThe Union Cabinet today approved an attractive recruitment scheme for Indian youth to serve in the Armed Forces.The scheme is called AGNIPATH and the youth selected under this scheme will be known as Agniveers.AGNIPATH allows patriotic and motivated youth to serve in the Armed Forces for a period of four years.The AGNIPATH scheme has been designed to enable a youthful profile of the Armed Forces.It will provide an opportunity to the youth who may be keen to don the uniform by attracting young talent from the society who are more in tune with contemporary technological trends and plough back skilled, disciplined and motivated manpower into the society.As for the Armed Forces, it will enhance the youthful profile of the Armed Forces and provide a fresh lease of ‘Josh’ and ‘Jazba’ whilst at the same time bring about a transformational shift towards a more tech savvy Armed Forces – which is indeed the need of the hour.Hence, the correct answer is Option D i.e AGNIPATH.
Q78
Who took oath as the 22 nd Governor of Maharashtra on 18 February
✓ Correct answer: c) Ramesh Bais
ExplanationRamesh Bais took oath as the 22nd Governor of Maharashtra, replacing Bhagat Singh Koshyari.Bais was administered the oath of office and secrecy by Acting Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court S V Gangapurwala at the Raj Bhavan.Bais took oath in Marathi.The Governor is the Executive Head of the State within the meaning of Article 153 and 154 of the Constitution of India.He cannot be a member of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.If he has been a member of either of the house, he should vacate the seat on his first day as Governor in the office.Hence, the correct answer is Option C i.e Ramesh Bias.
Q79
The Sethusamudram Project is a proposed shipping canal project that would connect the __________.
✓ Correct answer: d) Gulf of Mannar and the Palk Strait
ExplanationAndaman Sea and the Malacca Strait: The Andaman Sea is located to the east of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, while the Malacca Strait is a narrow stretch of water between the Malay Peninsula and the Indonesian island of Sumatra.Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea:The Bay of Bengal is located to the northeast of the Indian subcontinent, while the Arabian Sea is to the southwest.These two water bodies are already connected via the Indian mainland, and there is no proposal to connect them through a canal as part of the Sethusamudram Project.Indian mainland and Sri Lanka: This option refers to the Sethusamudram Project itself.It proposes to connect the Indian mainland's eastern coast (Gulf of Mannar) with the northern coast of Sri Lanka (Palk Strait) through a shipping canal.Gulf of Mannar and the Palk Strait: This is the correct answer for the Sethusamudram Project.The Gulf of Mannar is located between the southeastern tip of India (Tamil Nadu) and the western coast of Sri Lanka.The Palk Strait lies between the Indian mainland and the northern coast of Sri Lanka.Hence, the correct answer is Option D i.e. Gulf of Mannar and the Palk Strait.
Q80
Which Indian state hosted the FIH Men's Hockey World Cup 2023?
✓ Correct answer: d) Odisha
ExplanationOdisha, a state in eastern India, hosted the FIH Men's Hockey World Cup in 2023. This state has been actively promoting hockey and has become a hub for international hockey events, hosting major tournaments in recent years.The matches were played at two venues in Odisha: Kalinga Stadium, Bhubaneswar: This stadium is known for its passionate hockey fans and has hosted several international hockey events in the past, including the FIH Men's Hockey World Cup 2018. Biju Patnaik Hockey Stadium, Rourkela: This venue also hosted matches during the tournament.Hence, the correct asnwer is Option D i.e. Odisha.
Q81
Which of the following folk dance forms is associated with Assam?
✓ Correct answer: c) Bihu
ExplanationNautanki: Nautanki is a folk theatre form popular in North India, particularly in Uttar Pradesh.Kathakali: Kathakali is a classical dance- drama form from Kerala, known for its elaborate costumes, makeup, and expressive movements.Bihu: Bihu is a traditional folk dance and festival of Assam, celebrated with great fervor and enthusiasm.It is associated with the agricultural cycle and marks different phases of the Assamese calendar.Bihu dance is characterized by energetic movements, rhythmic swaying, and the use of traditional Assamese attire.Garba: Garba is a folk dance from Gujarat, traditionally performed during Navratri, a Hindu festival celebrating Goddess Durga.Hence, the correct answer is Option C i.e. Bihu.
Q82
With which country India conducted a bilateral air exercise, "Veer Guardian 23", from January 16 to 26,2023 ?
✓ Correct answer: b) Japan
ExplanationThe inaugural edition of the bilateral air exercise 'Veer Guardian 2023' between the Indian Air Force (IAF) and Japan Air Self Defence Force (JASDF) concluded in Japan, on 26 January 2023. The JASDF participated in the exercise with its F-2 and F-15 aircraft, while the IAF contingent participated with the Su-30 MKI aircraft.The IAF fighter contingent was complemented by one IL-78 Flight Refueling Aircraft and two C-17 Globemaster strategic airlift transport aircraft.During the joint training spanning 16 days, the two Air Forces engaged in complex and comprehensive aerial manoeuvres in multiple simulated operational scenarios.Hence, the correct asnwer is Option B i.e. Japan.
Q83
"UJALA", the National LED programme has been recently lauched in which city of Madhya Pradesh?
✓ Correct answer: a) Bhopal
ExplanationUnnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for All (UJALA) was a project to distribute efficient LED lighting, launched by Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.The project is spearheaded by the Energy Efficiency Services Limited.In non-subsidized LED lamp distribution projects, this program is considered the world's largest.UJALA will not only help reduce consumers their electricity bills but also contribute to the energy security of India.Hence, the correct answer is Option A i.e. Bhopal.
Q84
Which state government has recently declared 10% reservation quota for Economically Backward Classes (EBCs) in general category?
✓ Correct answer: c) Gujarat
ExplanationThe Gujarat government announced a new 10% quota in jobs and college admissions for the economically backward among upper castes, in an attempt to defuse the agitation by the Patidar community.Families having an annual income of ₹ 6 lakh or below will be eligible to avail the reservation.That means a family having an income up to ₹ 50,000 per month can take the benefit of the scheme.In 1992, the Supreme Court set a ceiling of 50% for all types of reservation while ruling that the Mandal Commission’s recommendation giving reservations to OBCs was constitutionally valid.Hence, the correct answer is Option C i.e. Gujarat.
Q85
Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state of India?
✓ Correct answer: c) Odisha
ExplanationBhitarkanika National Park is a 145 km2 large national park in northeast Kendrapara district in Odisha in eastern India.It was designated on 16 September 1998 and obtained the status of a Ramsar site on 19 August 2002. The area is also been designated as the second Ramsar site of the State after the Chilika Lake.It is surrounded by Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, which spread over 672 km2. Gahirmatha Beach and Marine Sanctuary are to the east, separating the swamp region and mangroves from the Bay of Bengal.The national park and wildlife sanctuary is inundated by the rivers Brahmani, Baitarani, Dhamra, and Pathsala.It hosts many mangrove species, and is the second largest mangrove ecosystem in India.The national park is home to Saltwater crocodile (Crocodylus porosus), Indian python, king cobra, black ibis, darters and many other species of flora and fauna.Hence, the correct answer is Option C i.e. Odisha.
Q86
Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana is related to ________.
✓ Correct answer: b) Financial Inclusion
ExplanationPradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), the biggest financial inclusion initiative in the world, was announced by the Hon'ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi on 15th August 2014 from the ramparts of the Red Fort and launched by him on 28th August 2014 across the country.While launching the Yojana, the Prime Minister had described the occasion as a festival to celebrate the liberation of the poor from a vicious cycle.PMJDY is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, Banking/Savings & Deposit Accounts, Remittance, Credit, Insurance and Pension in an affordable manner.Guinness Book of World Records- External website that opens in a new window also recognised the achievements made under PMJDY.It gave the certificate stating that the "Most bank accounts opened in one week as part of the Financial Inclusion Campaign is 18,096,130 and was achieved by the Department of Financial Services, Government of India from 23rd to 29th August, 2014." Hence, the correct answer is Option B.
Q87
Which of the following was awarded with the Best Global Music Performance in Grammy Awards 2024?
✓ Correct answer: c) Zakir Hussain
ExplanationDuring the premiere ceremony of the 66th Annual Grammy Awards in Los Angeles, California, US, Zakir Hussain secured the Best Global Music Performance Grammy for his contribution to “Pashto”.Zakir Hussain Allarakha Qureshi (9 March 1951 – 15 December 2024) was an Indian tabla player, composer, percussionist, music producer, and film actor.Widely regarded as the greatest tabla player of his generation and one of the greatest percussionists of all time, he was known for bringing Indian classical music to a global audience.He was the eldest son of the tabla player Alla Rakha, and won four Grammy Awards.Hence, the correct answer is Option C i.e. Zakir Hussain.
Q88
Who has been crowned Miss International India 2025?
✓ Correct answer: b) Roosh Sindhu
ExplanationRoosh Sindhu, a talented and ambitious young woman from Gujarat, India, has been crowned Miss International India 2025.
Q89
Which country's president was the Chief Guest at India's Republic Day Parade 2025 celebrations?
✓ Correct answer: a) Indonesia
ExplanationIndia celebrated its 76th Republic Day with a colorful parade in New Delhi, showcasing military strength, with Indonesian President Prabowo Subianto as the guest of honor.Indonesia was also India's chief guest on its first Republic Day in 1950. India and Indonesia signed pacts on maritime security, health, traditional medicine, and are working on a defense cooperation framework.This includes technology sharing for surface-to-surface missiles, air defense systems, and submarine construction.India welcomed Indonesia's decision to join the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure early.Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Q90
Which cricketer announced his retirement from T20Is after winning the 2024 T20 World Cup?
✓ Correct answer: b) Ravindra Jadeja
ExplanationFollowing the lead of Indian skipper Rohit Sharma and Virat Kohli, Ravindra Jadeja has announced his retirement from T20 Internationals after India's victory in the T20 World Cup 2024. Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Q91
Which ministry implements the Midday Meal Scheme in India?
✓ Correct answer: b) Ministry of Education
ExplanationMid-day Meal Scheme was started in 1995 throughout India by the Ministry of Education.Mid-day Meal Scheme is a school meal program of the Government of India.Hence the correct answer is option B.
Q92
Which is the lightest and smallest type of aircraft in India?
✓ Correct answer: b) HAL Tejas
ExplanationHAL Tejas is India’s lightest and smallest fighter aircraft due to its compact design and extensive use of composite materials.
Q93
Which country has opened military service to women for the first time in 25 years?
✓ Correct answer: d) Colombia
Explanation1. Colombia has opened military service to women for the first time in 25 years.2. A cohort of 1,296 women enlisted in Colombia's Army in February.3. Recruits must live on military bases, earning a monthly stipend of about $75, with hopes of building a career in the armed forces.4. The Colombian army currently has around 200,000 soldiers, with approximately 1% being women who previously joined through military universities or administrative roles.5. The move to allow female enlistment comes as Colombia's congress debates a bill to eliminate compulsory military service for men.6. Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q94
When is the Indian Air Force day celebrated?
✓ Correct answer: b) 8 October
ExplanationIndian Air Force Day is celebrated on October 8 every year.Every year, the Air Force Day is celebrated at Hindon base in presence of IAF chief and senior officials of the three armed forces.These celebrations include an air display where the most crucial and vintage aircraft put up a magnificent show.The Indian Air Force (IAF) is the air arm of the Indian armed forces with the primary mission to secure Indian airspace and conduct aerial activities during armed conflicts.Also known as ‘Bharatiya Vayu Sena’, the IAF was officially established on October 8, 1932, by the British Empire.The President of India holds the rank of Supreme Commander of the air force.The Chief of Air Staff, an air chief marshal is responsible for the operational command of the air force.Motto of the Indian Air Force is ‘Touch the Sky with Glory’ and it was taken from eleventh chapter of the Bhagavad Gita.Hence, the correct answer is Option B i.e. 8 October.
Q95
Who among the following is the winner of the US Open 2021 Men's Singles Final?
✓ Correct answer: b) Daniil Medvedev
ExplanationDaniil Medvedev won the US Open 2021 Men's Singles Final by defeating Novak Djokovic in straight sets (6–4, 6–4, 6–4).This victory marked Medvedev's first Grand Slam title.Medvedev became the third Russian man, after Yevgeny Kafelnikov and Marat Safin, to win a major singles title, and the first to do so since Safin at the 2005 Australian Open.Djokovic was aiming for a calendar Grand Slam (winning all four major titles in the same year) but fell short in the final.Rafael Nadal and Roger Federer did not participate in the 2021 US Open due to injuries.Hence, the correct answer is Option B i.e. Daniil Medvedev.
Q96
Which city is scheduled to host the Summer Olympic Games 2024?
✓ Correct answer: a) Paris
ExplanationParis, France is the host city for the 2024 Summer Olympics, which will be held from July 26 to August 11, 2024. The games will be the biggest event ever held in France.Paris is the second city to host the Summer Olympics three times, after London.The other times Paris hosted the Summer Olympics were in 1900 and 1924. Paris was elected as the host city on 13 September 2017 at the 131st IOC Session in Lima, Peru.Hence, the correct answer is Option A i.e. Paris.
Q97
Who has won the Wimbledon men's singles title in July 2022?
✓ Correct answer: d) Novak Djokovic
ExplanationIn July 2022, Novak Djokovic won the Wimbledon Men's Singles title by defeating Nick Kyrgios in the final.The match took place on July 10, 2022, and Djokovic won with a scoreline of 4–6, 6–3, 6–4, 7–6(3).This victory marked Djokovic’s 7th Wimbledon title and his 21st Grand Slam title overall, placing him one title behind Rafael Nadal, who had 22 Grand Slam titles at that time.Hence, the correct answer is Option D i.e. Novak Djokovic.
Q98
Who has been appointed as the Chairman of the eight-member high-level committee constituted by the Government of India to examine the proposal of "One Nation, One Election"?
✓ Correct answer: b) Ram Nath Kovind
ExplanationThe Government of India constituted an eight-member high-level committee to examine the feasibility of implementing the concept of "One Nation, One Election".This reform aims to synchronize elections for the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to reduce costs and ensure efficient governance.Former President Ram Nath Kovind was appointed as the Chairman of this committee due to his experience and stature in public life.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q99
Which organization is primarily responsible for monitoring and controlling air pollution in India?
✓ Correct answer: a) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
ExplanationThe Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.Its main role is to monitor, control, and prevent air and water pollution across India.While ISRO focuses on space research, BIS deals with standards and quality, and NGT is a judicial body for environmental disputes, CPCB is the primary body directly tasked with air pollution control.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q100
Which one of the following statements is correct?
✓ Correct answer: a) India is the largest importer of defence equipment in the world
ExplanationKey point: Defence and Security Explantion: India has consistently been the largest importer of defense equipment globally, accounting for a significant portion of worldwide arms imports, according to various defense reports.In 2014, Russia was still the largest exporter of defense equipment to India, although the U.S. has been increasing its defense sales to India in recent years.Russia continues to be one of India's major defense suppliers, including supplying key systems like fighter jets, air defense systems, and naval platforms.India imports defense equipment,comprising around 60-70% of its total defense needs, although efforts have been underway to boost indigenous defense production.Hence, the correct option is a.
Q101
Who among the following has authored the book 'The Idea of India'?
✓ Correct answer: c) Sunil Khilnani
ExplanationKey point : Famous book and authors Explanation: Sunil Khilnani is the author of the book "The Idea of India," .It explores the political, social, and cultural landscape of post- independence India.It was published in 1997. Khushwant Singh wrote books including "Train to Pakistan" and "The History of Sikhs." Shashi Tharoor is an Indian author, and some of his famous books are "The Great Indian Novel," "Inglorious Empire," and "An Era of Darkness." William Dalrymple is a Scottish historian and writer who wrote "City of Djinns," "White Mughals," and "The Anarchy." Hence, the correct option is c.
Q102
In order to create awareness among the people regarding endangered species of tortoise, in the month of February 2015, the third Tortoise Festival was held at :
✓ Correct answer: a) Hajong Lake, Assam
ExplanationKey point:Place in news Explanation: The Tortoise Festival is organized to raise awareness about endangered tortoise species and promote their conservation.In February 2015, the third edition of this festival was held at Hajong Lake in Assam.Hajong Lake is known for its rich biodiversity, including a variety of freshwater tortoises and other rare species.The event aimed to engage the local community and increase public knowledge.Hence, the correct option is A.
Q103
In January 2015, Government of India approved the establishment of a Neutrino Observatory at :
✓ Correct answer: a) Bodi hills in Tamil Nadu
ExplanationKey point:Science and technology Explanation: In January 2015, the Government of India approved the establishment of a Neutrino Observatory at Bodi hills in Tamil Nadu.The India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) is proposed to be constructed in the Bodi West Hills of Theni district., Tamil Nadu.It is near the Kerala-Tamil Nadu border.The site is located close to the Mathikettan Shola National Park.The INO project aims to build a world- class underground laboratory with a rock cover, designed to conduct basic research on neutrinos, subatomic particles with a very small mass and no electric charge.Hence , the correct option is a.
Q104
Which one of the following Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments had the highest total prize money (in terms of US Dollars) in the year 2014?
✓ Correct answer: c) Wimbledon
ExplanationKey point:Sports Explanation: In 2014, Wimbledon had the highest total prize money among Grand Slam tournaments.Total money prize was approximately $42 million USD.Prize breakdowns were as follows: Australian Open - $33 million, French Open - $34.5 million, US Open - $38.25 million.Grand Slam in tennis means winning all four major championships—Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, and US Open—within a single calendar year.This achievement is rare, with only six occurrences in tennis history.It has been accomplished by five different players to date.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q105
Which one of the following cities has been identified as the best habitable city in the Mercer Quality of Life Study, 2016 ?
✓ Correct answer: b) Vienna
ExplanationKey point:Report and index Explanation: In the Mercer Quality of Life Study 2016 survey, Vienna was identified as the best habitable city.The report indicates that Vienna, the capital of Austria, offers the highest quality of life among cities globally.In contrast, Baghdad, the capital of Iraq, consistently ranks at the bottom of the livability index.The Mercer Quality of Life Study evaluates living conditions in over 450 cities worldwide.The study assessed living conditions across more than 450 cities, focusing on 39 factors categorized into 10 groups.These factors included aspects such as political stability, healthcare, education, infrastructure, and environment.The 18th annual Quality of Living survey was released on February 23, 2016. The survey covers 230 cities and assists companies in determining compensation and hardship allowances for international staff.Hence, the correct option is b.
Q106
The latest trophy introduced in Indian domestic cricket competition is:
✓ Correct answer: c) Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy
ExplanationKey concept:Sports Explanation: Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy is the latest addition among Indian domestic cricket trophies.It was named after the legendary Indian cricketer Syed Mushtaq Ali, a popular figure known for his aggressive batting style.The Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy was introduced in 2006 by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) as India’s premier domestic T20 cricket competition.The Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy serves as a platform for emerging Indian cricketers to showcase their talent in the T20 format, potentially earning opportunities for selection in IPL teams and the Indian national team.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q107
Recently French military announced to end 'Operation Sangaris', which was in operation since 2013, in which one of the following nations?
✓ Correct answer: b) Central African Republic
ExplanationKey concept: International news Explanation: Operation Sangaris was a military intervention conducted by the French military in the Central African Republic (CAR) from late 2013 to 2016. In late 2012, former President François Bozizé requested international assistance from France and the United States to counter the Séléka rebel movement.The Mission to the CAR (MISCA) was established in 2013 following the adoption of Resolution 2127 by the United Nations Security Council.The primary objective of Operation Sangaris was to restore security in the CAR after a prolonged period of communal violence.During its course, Operation Sangaris involved deploying thousands of French troops to the region, working alongside United Nations and African Union forces to help restore peace.Hence, the correct option is b.
Q108
Which of the following statements about Subedar Major Fateh Singh is / are correct ?1. He was a big bore rifle shooter who won two gold medals during first Commonwealth championship2. He retired from Bihar regiment before joining Defence Service Corps3. He was killed during the terror attack at Pathankot Air Force Base Select the correct answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: c) 1 and 3 only
ExplanationKey concept:Person in news Explanation: Subedar Major Fateh Singh was a distinguished figure in the Indian Army.He was known for his contributions both as a soldier and an athlete.He served in the 15th Battalion of the Dogra Regiment, and was also a sport shooter.In 1995, he achieved success at the Commonwealth Shooting Championships held in New Delhi.He won both a gold and a silver medal in the big-bore individual and team events.While on duty with the Defence Security Corps, he was martyred during the Pathankot attack in 2016. Hence, the correct option is c.
Q109
Who among the following is the winner of the Human Rights Award by Amnesty International, Germany?
✓ Correct answer: d) Henri Tiphagne
ExplanationKey point: Awards and Prize Explanation: Henri Tiphagne was the winner of the 8th Human Rights Award from Amnesty International, Germany.He is a lawyer and human rights defender hailing from Tamil Nadu, India.Tiphagne is actively working to combat torture and discrimination within India.In the mid-1990s, he established the organization People's Watch.The Human Rights Award is given by Amnesty International Germany to recognize individuals or organizations that advocate for human rights in challenging conditions.The award includes a financial grant of 10,000 euros, funded by Stiftung Menschenrechte and Förderstiftung Amnesty.Amnesty International is a prominent non-governmental organization based in the United Kingdom People’s Watch focuses on: Researching and documenting human rights violations.Providing legal representation to victims of such crimes.Actively promoting human rights education.Hence, the correct option is d.
Q110
Which one of the following States won the National School Athletics Championship in the year 2016 ?
✓ Correct answer: b) Kerala
ExplanationKey point:Sports Explanation: Kerala won the 61st National School Athletics Championship in 2016. The Championship took place in 2016 and concluded in Kozhikode.This championship is an annual outdoor track and field competition organized by the Athletics Federation of India, serving as the national championship for the sport in India.The event was first held in 1961 and has since become a significant platform for identifying and nurturing athletic talent among school students across the country.Kerala excelled in the championship, amassing a total of 306 points.The state achieved remarkable success, winning 39 gold, 29 silver, and 17 bronze medals.Tamil Nadu finished in second place with 116 points, securing 11 gold, 8 silver, and 13 bronze medals.Maharashtra achieved third position with a total of 101 points.Hence, the correct option is b.
Q111
Which of the following pairs of Scheme and Target Group, as initiated in the Railway Budget 2016, is / are correctly matched ? Schemes Target Group1. Antyodaya Express For the Reserved Passengers2. Deen Dayalu Coaches For the Unreserved Passengers3. Humsafar For the Reserved Passengers4. Tejas For the Unreserved Passengers Select the correct answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: b) 2 and 3 only
ExplanationKey point:Government scheme Explanation: In the Rail Budget 2016-17, four new trains and a new type of coach were introduced.This budget marked the last separate Rail Budget in India, after which it was merged with the Union Budget.Antyodaya Express and Deen Dayalu Coaches cater to unreserved passengers.Humsafar, Tejas, and Uday are designed for reserved passengers.Antyodaya Express is a long-distance that operates on high-density routes.As of 2020, there are 16 Antyodaya trains in operation.In 2019, Indian Railways planned to manufacture over 1,000 Deen Dayalu coaches.Humsafar is a fully premium service offering AC-3 Tier and Sleeper Class accommodations.The first service was launched on December 16, 2016, between Gorakhpur and Anand Vihar Terminal, New Delhi.Tejas is High-speed trains equipped with world-class facilities.It is operated by private entities responsible for providing services.Hence, the correct option is b.
Q112
Which one of the following cities hosted the Twelfth South Asian Games, 2016?
✓ Correct answer: c) Guwahati
ExplanationKey concept:Sports Explanation: The Twelfth South Asian Games were hosted in 2016 in India, marking a major regional sports event that promotes unity and cooperation among South Asian countries.The games were held in Guwahati and Shillong from February 5 to February 16, 2016. Guwahati, the largest city in Assam, was one of the primary hosts, while Shillong, the capital of Meghalaya, also hosted various events.A total of eight South Asian nations participated in the games, including India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Afghanistan, and the Maldives.The games featured 23 different sports categories.India emerged as the top-performing country, winning the most medals across various categories.The games strengthened regional ties and promoted sportsmanship and cultural exchange among the South Asian nations.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q113
Which of the following statements about Exercise IBSAMAR is / are correct ?1. It is a joint exercise of Navy of India, Brazil and Sri Lanka2. The fifth edition of IBSAMAR was held in Goa3. All previous editions of IBSAMAR were held outside India Select the correct answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: b) 2 and 3 only
ExplanationKey Concept: Defence and Security Explanation: IBSAMAR stands for India-Brazil-South Africa Maritime Exercise.It was initiated in 2016. Exercise IBSAMAR is a trilateral naval exercise involving the navies of India, Brazil, and South Africa, not Sri Lanka.The fifth edition of IBSAMAR was indeed held in Goa, India, which took place in 2019. The previous editions of IBSAMAR have been conducted outside of India.Specifically: The first edition was held in Brazil in 2008. The second edition took place in Brazil in 2010. The third edition was also held in Brazil in 2012. The fourth edition occurred in South Africa in 2016. Hence the correct option is b.
Q114
The largest greenhouse gas leakage in the US history took place in February 2016. The gas was :
✓ Correct answer: b) Methane
ExplanationKey point: International news Explanation: The incident occurred at the Aliso Canyon natural gas storage facility in California.It began in October 2015 and was capped in February 2016. The gas that leaked was primarily methane, which is a powerful greenhouse gas.An estimated 97,100 tons of methane were released into the atmosphere.This significant leak contributed to climate change and had serious environmental effects.Methane is about 25 times more effective than carbon dioxide at trapping heat over a 100-year period.The incident highlighted the risks of natural gas storage and the need for improved leak detection and prevention.Hence, the correct option is b.
Q115
Which one of the following was the Theme State in the Surajkund International Craft Mela?
✓ Correct answer: c) Telangana
ExplanationKey point: Places in news Explanation: The Surajkund Mela, held annually since 1987 in Surajkund, Faridabad, Haryana, celebrates India's handicrafts, handlooms, and cultural heritage.It is known as the largest crafts fair globally, drawing attention to the artistic diversity of the country.Surajkund Mela Authority and Haryana Tourism host the event with support from the Union Ministries of Tourism, Textiles, Culture, and External Affairs.The theme state for the 30th Mela event was Telangna.Each year, a Theme State is selected to showcase its unique culture.In 2020 (34th Mela), Himachal Pradesh was chosen as the Theme State.The fair includes participants from at least 20 countries and all Indian states, making it a global event.Multi-cuisine Food Courts offer traditional dishes from around the world, enhancing the cultural experience.The Mela hosts folk performances at two “Chaupals” and captivating evening recitals at the “Natyashala” for added entertainment.Visitors can also enjoy amusement areas, adventure sports, and joy rides specifically designated at the fair.Hence , the correct option is c.
Q116
Which one of the following fiction was selected for Man Booker Prize, 2015 ?
✓ Correct answer: c) A Brief History of Seven Killings
ExplanationKey concept:Awards and prizes Explanation: The Man Booker Prize is one of the most prestigious literary awards, recognizing excellence in fiction published in the English language. | | Defence The Man Booker Prize for Fiction in 2015 was awarded to "A Brief History of Seven Killings" by Marlon James.This novel explores the impact of the 1976 assassination attempt on the musician Bob Marley and delves into the social and political landscape of Jamaica during that era.Marlon James’s work was praised for its unique style, utilizing multiple perspectives and voices, which contribute to a rich and complex storytelling experience.Other novels nominated for the 2015 award included "A Little Life" by Hanya Yanagihara, "The Fishermen" by Chigozie Obioma, and "Satin Island" by Tom McCarthy, but they did not win the award.James's win was significant, as he became the first Jamaican author to receive the Man Booker Prize, highlighting the importance of Caribbean literature on the global stage.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q117
Which of the following statements about 'Nairobi Package' adopted in the Tenth Ministerial Conference of WTO is / are correct ?1. No safeguard mechanism for developing country members2. Preferential rules of origin for least developed countries3. Public stockholding for food security purposes Select the correct answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: c) 2 and 3 only
ExplanationKey point:International affairs Explanation: The Nairobi Package refers to the 10th Ministerial Conference of the WTO, held from 15 to 19 December 2015 in Nairobi, Kenya.The package includes 6 key decisions on agriculture, cotton, and other issues relevant to Least Developed Countries (LDCs).Developing countries will be able to use the Special Safeguard Mechanism (SSM) to protect agricultural products.A Ministerial Decision was adopted on Preferential Rules of Origin for LDCs, ensuring the rules are simple and transparent, facilitating market access for LDCs.Members committed to work towards a permanent solution on the issue of public stockholding for food security.The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global organization that manages trade rules between nations, with 164 members and 23 observer governments.Its headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland, and it has been operational since 1 January 1995 (with origins dating back to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) in 1948).Hence, the correct option is c.
Q118
Identify from the following the novel written by Charles Dickens that critiqued the adverse impact of industrialization on the poor.
✓ Correct answer: b) Hard Times
ExplanationKey point: Book and authors Explanation: "Hard Times" is a novel by Charles Dickens, published in 1854. The book serves as a critique of the industrialization of England during the 19th century and its detrimental effects on the working class and the poor.The novel challenges the utilitarian philosophy that emphasizes efficiency and practicality over human values and emotions.Dickens illustrates how industrialization leads to the dehumanization of workers, poor living conditions, and a lack of education, particularly for children.The story revolves around characters like Thomas Gradgrind, who embodies the cold, factual approach of utilitarianism, and Stephen Blackpool, a factory worker representing the struggles of the working class.Hence, the correct option is b.
Q119
Who among the following is the winner of the Jnanpith Award for the year 2015 ?
✓ Correct answer: b) Raghuveer Chaudhary
ExplanationKey point: Awards and prizes Explanation: Raghuveer Chaudhary is an esteemed Gujarati writer, known for his novels, poetry, and critical essays.His works often explore social issues and human values.In 2015, Chaudhary was honored with the 51st Jnanpith Award for his significant contributions to Gujarati literature.Jnanpith Award is one of India's highest literary honors, awarded annually by the Bharatiya Jnanpith to an author for their outstanding contribution to literature.Bhalachandra Nemade won the Jnanpith Award in 2014 for his work in Marathi literature.Pratibha Ray is a noted Odia author, she won the Jnanpith Award in 1991. Girish Karnad is renowned Kannada playwright, awarded the Jnanpith in 1998. Hence, the correct option is b.
Q120
Which one of the following statements regarding Zika virus is not correct ?
✓ Correct answer: c) It does not cause mother to child infection
ExplanationKey concept: Science and technology Explanation: Zika Virus is a flavivirus transmitted primarily by mosquitoes.It was first detected in 1947 in monkeys in Uganda and was later found in humans in 1952 in Uganda and the United Republic of Tanzania.This virus is mainly spread by Aedes mosquitoes, which are active during the day.Infection with the Zika virus can lead to babies being born with microcephaly and other congenital abnormalities.It can also be transmitted from mother to child.The estimated incubation period for Zika virus disease ranges from 3 to 14 days.Furthermore, Zika virus infections have been associated with conditions like Guillain-Barré syndrome, neuropathy, and myelitis, particularly in adults and older children.The first isolation of the virus occurred in 1947 from the blood of a sentinel rhesus macaque located in the Zika Forest near Entebbe, Uganda, during yellow fever surveillance activities.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q121
In February 2016, which one of the following countries has rejected the plea of the incumbent President through a referendum to contest the Presidential election for the third term?
✓ Correct answer: c) Bolivia
ExplanationKey point: Places in news Explanation: In February 2016, a referendum was held in Bolivia.It was held to determine whether the incumbent president, Evo Morales, could seek a third term in office.The proposal was to amend the constitution, which would have allowed Morales, who had already served two terms, to run again in the 2019 presidential elections.The referendum results indicated that a majority of voters opposed the amendment, leading to the rejection of Morales's bid for a third term.Morales had been in office since 2006. The outcome emphasized the democratic process in Bolivia, reflecting the people's will regarding leadership continuity and term limits.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q122
Lance Naik Hanmanthappa Koppad, who was buried alive under snow by deadly avalanche at Siachen Glacier, who later died in a hospital after he was miraculously rescued by army, was a soldier of :
✓ Correct answer: b) Madras Regiment
ExplanationKey point: Person in news Explanation: In February 2016, Lance Naik Hanmanthappa Koppad was tragically buried under snow after a devastating avalanche struck the Siachen Glacier.It is one of the world's highest and harshest military zones.After being trapped under snow for six days, he was miraculously rescued alive by the Indian Army.However, despite the army's efforts and extensive medical care, he later succumbed to his injuries in a hospital.Lance Naik Hanmanthappa Koppad served in the Madras Regiment, one of the oldest regiments in the Indian Army, known for its distinguished service and contributions.Hence, the correct option is b.
Q123
Who among the following is one of the six winners of the Goldman Environmental Prize, for the year 2017 ?
✓ Correct answer: c) Prafulla Samantra
ExplanationKey Concept: Awards and Prizes Explanation: The 2017 Goldman Environmental Prize has been given to Prafulla Samantara.The six winners of the Goldman Environmental Prize for 2017 include: Uroš Macerl (Slovenia) Prafulla Samantara (India) Mark Lopez (United States) Rodrigo Tot (Guatemala) Rodrigue Mugaruka Katembo (Democratic Republic of the Congo) Wendy Bowman (Australia) An iconic leader of social justice movements in India, Prafulla Samantara led a historic 12-year legal battle that affirmed the indigenous Dongria Kondh’s land rights and protected the Niyamgiri Hills from a massive, open-pit aluminum ore mine.Also known as the “Green Nobel Prize,” this annual award honours grassroots environmental champions worldwide for their outstanding contributions to environmental protection.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q124
Which of the following statements about the Paris Agreement on Climate Change is NOT correct?
✓ Correct answer: c) The Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) pledged during the 2015 Climate Change Conference has been withdrawn in the Paris Agreement
ExplanationKey Concept: Environment and Geography Explanation: The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change.It was adopted by 196 Parties at the UN Climate Change Conference (COP21) in Paris, France, on 12 December 2015. It entered into force on 4 November 2016. Its overarching goal is to hold “the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels” and pursue efforts “to limit the temperature increase to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.” The INDCs (Intended Nationally Determined Contributions) are individualized targets that each country sets in order to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change.These INDCs are a key element of the Paris Agreement and continue to be a part of the agreement.To limit global warming to 1.5°C, greenhouse gas emissions must peak before 2025 at the latest and decline 43% by 2030. The United States and China, two of the largest contributors to global greenhouse gas emissions, have both joined the agreement and have been instrumental in its implementation.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q125
Which one of the following portals was launched on the 250th anniversary of Survey of India ?
✓ Correct answer: d) Nakshc
ExplanationKey Concept: Government Schemes Explanation: The portal launched on the 250th anniversary of the Survey of India is Nakshe.This online portal was introduced to provide digital maps and related services to the public, commemorating the significant milestone of the Survey of India.Topographic maps or Open Series Maps (OSM) containing natural and man- made geographical features including terrain or topography are prepared by the SoI since its inception in 1767 and is in conformity with the National Map Policy-2005. These OSM maps have been made available for free download from “nakshe” web portal in pdf format on 1:50,000 scale through Aaadhar enabled user authentication process, in line with Digital India programme of the Government of India.Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q126
Who among the following has won the Dadasaheb Phalke award for the year 2016 ?
✓ Correct answer: a) K Viswanath
ExplanationKey Concept: Awards and Prizes Explanation: The 64th Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2016 was received by the filmmaker and actor K. Vishwanath.The Dadasaheb Phalke Award, named after Dhundiraj Govind Phalke, the pioneer of Indian cinema, is the highest honor in the film industry since 1969. India’s first feature film, “Raja Harishchandra,” was directed by Phalke in 1913. Recipients of this award receive a shawl, a medallion called the Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus), and a cash prize of Rs. 10 lakh.The recipients of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award were Rajnikant (2019) and Amitabh Bachchan (2018).The Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2024 was received by Shahrukh Khan.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q127
Statement I: The Man Booker International Prize is now unlikely to be won by an English author Statement II : The Booker Prize Foundation announced that the Man Ronker International Prize was to evolve from 2016 onwards into a prize for fiction in translation
✓ Correct answer: a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
ExplanationKey Concept: Awards and Prizes Explanation: The Booker Prize for Fiction was formerly known as the Booker- McConnell Prize (1969-2001) and then known as the Man Booker Prize (2002- 2019).It is a literary prize awarded each year for the best original novel written in the English Language and published in the United Kingdom.The Booker Prize Foundation on 7th July 2015 announced that the Man Booker International Prize is to evolve from 2016, to encourage more publishing and reading of quality fiction in translation.Hence statement Il is the correct and correct explanation for the statement I. As of 2016, the prize will be awarded annually on the basis of a single book, translated into English and published in the UK, rather than every two years for a body of work.For the 2016 prize, both novels and collections of short stories will be eligible.The International Booker Prize, formerly known as the Man Booker International Prize, is now open to authors from all nationalities and is not unlikely to be won by an English author.The International Booker Prize is open to authors from all nationalities who have work available in English and published in the UK or Ireland.The 2024 International Booker Prize was won by German author Jenny Erpenbeck for her novel Kairos, which was translated by Michael Hofmann Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q128
Which one of the following countries has officially recognized Bitcoin as a legal payment method since 1st April 2017 ?
✓ Correct answer: a) Japan
ExplanationKey Concept: Economy Explanation: Japan made history in 2017 by becoming the first country to recognize Bitcoin as a payment method.Japan officially recognized Bitcoin as a legal payment method in April 2017 under the Payment Services Act (PSA).In April 2017, Japan's PSA recognized Bitcoin and other virtual assets as legitimate property, making it one of the first countries to do so.The PSA requires cryptocurrency exchanges operating in Japan to be registered, keep records, take security measures, and protect customers.As of April 2017, cryptocurrency exchange businesses operating in Japan have been regulated under the PSA.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q129
Padma Shri Sudarsan Pattnaik is well known as a
✓ Correct answer: d) Sand artist
ExplanationKey Concept: Person in news Explanation: Sudarsan Pattnaik is one of India's most renowned sand artists from Puri, Odisha.He is known for his impressive sand sculptures and awards recognizing his talent and achievements in this unique art form.In 2014, the Government of India honored him with the Padma Shri, India's fourth-highest civilian award, for his contributions to seashore sand art.Some key facts about Sudarsan Pattnaik: In February 2017, he broke the Guinness world record for making the world's largest sand castle on Puri Beach.He has won numerous awards for his sand art, including the People's Choice Award at the Sand Sculpting World Cup 2014 in Atlantic City, US.He was the first Indian to win the Italian Sand Art Award in 2019 at the International Scorrano Sand Nativity event in Italy.Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q130
Which one of the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is NOT correct?
✓ Correct answer: b) The scheme was launched in the year 2015
ExplanationKey Concept: Government Schemes Explanation: The extension of the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) for the allocation of 75 lakh LPG connections over three years, from the Financial Year 2023-24 to 2025-26, was approved by the Union Cabinet, under the leadership of Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi.Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was started in May, 2016 to provide clean cooking fuel to poor households across the country.Under PMUY, a deposit free LPG connection is provided to adult women from poor households.The target under the scheme was to release 8 Crore LPG Connections Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q131
Who among the following are awarded with the Special Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics for the year 2017 ?
✓ Correct answer: c) Joseph Polchinski, Andrew Strominger and Cumrun Vafa
ExplanationKey Concept: Awards and Prizes Explanation: The recipients of the 2017 Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics were Joseph Polchinski, Andrew Strominger, and Cumrun Vafa.They were awarded for their transformative advances in quantum field theory, string theory, and quantum gravity.About the Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics: The Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics is one of the Breakthrough Prizes, awarded by the Breakthrough Prize Board.Initially named Fundamental Physics Prize, it was founded in July 2012 by Russia-born Israeli entrepreneur, venture capitalist and physicist Yuri Milner.The prize is awarded to physicists from theoretical, mathematical, or experimental physics that have made transformative contributions to fundamental physics, and specifically for recent advances.Worth USD$3 million, the prize is the most lucrative physics prize in the world and is more than twice the amount given to the Nobel Prize awardees.The 2024 Breakthrough Prizes in the Life Sciences category recognised groundbreaking research set to change the lives of those suffering from three Rare Diseases: Parkinson’s disease, Cystic fibrosis and Cancer.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q132
In March 2017, a High Court in India had accorded the status of living human entities to which two of the following rivers?
✓ Correct answer: b) Ganga and Yamuna
ExplanationKey Concept: National News Explanation: In March 2017, the Uttarakhand High Court accorded the status of living human entities to the Ganga and Yamuna rivers.This landmark decision recognized these rivers, along with their tributaries and streams, as juristic persons with corresponding rights, duties, and liabilities, aimed at preserving and conserving them.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q133
Who among the following Mathematician is the recipient of the Abel Prize for the year 2017 ?
✓ Correct answer: b) Yves Meyer
ExplanationKey Concept: Awards and Prizes Explanation: The Abel Prize for the year 2017 was awarded to Yves Meyer of France for his fundamental contributions to the development of mathematical theory of wavelets.He was recognized for his groundbreaking work on wavelets, which has had a profound impact on pure and applied mathematics.About the Abel Prize: The Abel Prize is awarded annually by the King of Norway to outstanding mathematicians.It comes with a monetary award of 7.5 million Norwegian kroner (approximately $840,000 USD).The Abel Prize for 2024 was awarded to Michel Talagrand, a French mathematician recognized for his contributions to probability theory and functional analysis, with significant applications in mathematical physics and statistics.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q134 · 2017
Akshay Kumar was chosen for the best actor award for the 64th National Film Awards (2017) for his role in the Hindi film:
✓ Correct answer: c) Rustom
ExplanationKey Concept: Awards and Prizes Explanation: Akshay Kumar was chosen for the Best Actor award at the 64th National Film Awards (2017) for his role in the Hindi film Rustom.This marked his first win of a National Award for Best Actor, recognizing his performance in the film, which is based on the real-life case of naval officer K.M. Nanavati.About National Film Awards: The National Film Awards were established in 1954, when the awards were given for the films of the year 1953. The awards were initially called ‘State Awards’ and two President’s Gold Medals, two certificates of merit, and 12 silver medals for regional films were presented in the earlier years.The National Film Awards are given in three sections: Feature Films, Non- Feature Films, and Best Writing in Cinema.These awards have been administered by the Directorate of Film Festivals since 1973 Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q135
Which one of the following novels won the Pulitzer Prize for the year 2017 in the Fiction category ?
✓ Correct answer: d) The Underground Railroad
ExplanationKey Concept: Awards and Prize Explanation: The novel that won the 2017 Pulitzer Prize for Fiction is The Underground Railroad by Colson Whitehead.The Pulitzer Prize Board awarded Whitehead for a smart melding of realism and allegory that combines the violence of slavery and the drama of escape in a mythic work that places the Underground Railroad at the center of a historic continent-wide odyssey.About Pulitzer Prize: The Pulitzer Prize is an annual award given to individuals in various fields for outstanding achievements in journalism, literature, and music composition.It was established in 1917 by the American newspaper publisher Joseph Pulitzer.Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q136
Which one of the following countries has been ranked as the least corrupt country in the Corruption Perception Index 2016 released by Transparency International ?
✓ Correct answer: a) Denmark
ExplanationKey Concept: Report and Index Explanation: According to the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 2016, Denmark was ranked as the least corrupt country in the world.Denmark consistently ranks among the least corrupt nations in the world.In the 2016 CPI, Denmark was perceived as the least corrupt country, scoring 90 out of 100 (where 100 represents very clean).About the Transparency Perception Index: The index is published annually by the non-governmental organisation Transparency International since 1995. The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is the most widely used global corruption ranking in the world.It measures how corrupt each country’s public sector is perceived to be, according to experts and businesspeople.Each country’s score is a combination of at least 3 data sources drawn from 13 different corruption surveys and assessments.These data sources are collected by a variety of reputable institutions, including the World Bank and the World Economic Forum. hencem the correct answer is a.
Q137
The US President in 2017 has signed an executive order for US withdrawal from a trade organization of the Pacific region. Identify the organization from among the following :
✓ Correct answer: b) Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)
ExplanationKey Concept: International Relations Explanation: In 2017, the US President signed an executive order for the United States' withdrawal from the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP).This action was taken shortly after President Donald Trump took office, fulfilling a campaign promise to exit the trade agreement that had been negotiated during the Obama administration.The Trans-Pacific Partnership Agreement (TPP) is a free trade agreement that would liberalise trade and investment between 12 Pacific-rim countries.The countries are New Zealand, Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, Peru, Singapore, the United States and Viet Nam.The concluded TPP Agreement was signed in February 2016. New Zealand, which is the depository for the TPP, ratified the Agreement in May 2017. Japan has also ratified it.However, the TPP Agreement cannot enter into force until it is also ratified by four other signatories, including the United States.The US has notified that it does not intend to become a party to the Agreement.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q138
Which of the following statement(s) about Easterine Kire is/are correct ?1. Born in Nagaland, she is a poet, novelist and children's book writer2. She is the recipient of the Hindu Prize for the year 2015 for her poetic novel 'When the River Sleeps'3. 'When the River Sleeps' was an exploration of the Naga spirit universe Select the correct answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: d) 1,2 and 3
ExplanationKey Concept: Person in news Explanation: Dr Easterine Kire, poet, short story writer and novelist, was born in Kohima, Nagaland, a state in Northeast India.Her tales drawn from her indigenous Naga culture are now stem from her home in Arctic Norway.In 1982, she was the first Naga poet in to have her poetry published in English.In 2003, she wrote A Naga Village Remembered, the first Naga novel in English.In 2011 she was awarded the Governor’s medal for excellence in Naga literature.Her novel, Bitter Wormwood was shortlisted for the Hindu Lit for Life prize in 2013 and in the same year, she received the Free Voice award from Barcelona.In 2015, her novel, When the River Sleeps was awarded The Hindu Lit for Life prize.When the River Sleeps` is an exploration of the Naga spirit universe.This implies that the novel delves into the Naga culture, tradition, and beliefs, offering insights and understanding of their spiritual realm.Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q139
In May 2018, which one of the following banks was restricted from giving fresh credit and new recruitment of staff by the Reserve Bank of India?
✓ Correct answer: b) Dena Bank
ExplanationKey concept: Economy Explanation: In May 2018, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) initiated Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) against Dena Bank due to high non-performing assets (NPAs).PCA imposed restrictions on Dena Bank, including a halt on new credit issuance and staff recruitment.Dena Bank became the first lender to face these curbs under the PCA framework.Later, Dena Bank was merged with Vijaya Bank and Bank of Baroda.Hence,the correct option is b.
Q140
Who among the following cricketers has announced his retirement from international cricket in May 2018?
✓ Correct answer: c) AB de Villiers
ExplanationKey concept: Sports Explanation: Former South African cricket captain AB de Villiers declared his retirement from all forms of international cricket in May 2018 via Twitter.Regarded as one of the premier middle- order batsmen of contemporary cricket, de Villiers earned acclaim for his impressive career record and distinctive batting technique.Throughout his career, de Villiers amassed numerous achievements and left an indelible mark on the sport.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q141
In May 2018, which one of the following countries has relocated its embassy in Israel from Tel Aviv to Jerusalem?
✓ Correct answer: c) USA
ExplanationKey concept:International affairs Explanation: The USA relocated its embassy in Israel from Tel Aviv to Jerusalem, becoming the first country to do so.This move, celebrated on May 17, 2018, received significant international criticism.Guatemala followed the USA's lead by also moving its embassy to Jerusalem.Other countries, including Paraguay, the Czech Republic, Romania, and Honduras, are reportedly considering similar moves.These smaller countries may be motivated by the desire to strengthen relations with the USA, potentially to preserve foreign aid and trading status.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q142
Which of the following is/are considered as India's green initiative(s)?1. National Green Highways Mission2. R&D for Clean Coal Technologies3. National Green Corridor Programme Select the correct answer using the code given below.
✓ Correct answer: d) 1,2 and 3
ExplanationKey concept: Government schemes Explanation: National Green Highways Mission: Aim: Promote greening of highway corridors involving farmers, private sector, community, government institutions, and NGOs.R & D for Clean Coal Technologies: Aim: Address critical R&D challenges for clean coal technology development, including supercritical power plant technologies at material and system levels.National Green Corridor Programme: Aim: Facilitate the integration of renewable energy into the National Grid Network.Hence, the correct option is d.
Q143
In a recent deal, a large stake of which one of the following e-commerce companies was acquired by Walmart, an American multinational retailer?
✓ Correct answer: b) Flipkart
ExplanationKey concept: Economy Explanation: US-based Walmart finalized its acquisition of India's largest e-commerce company Flipkart on August 18, 2018, for a whopping $16 billion.The acquisition faced opposition from various traders across India, who expressed concerns that the deal could potentially force many small retailers out of business.The acquisition was approved by the Competition Commission of India (CCI), allowing Walmart to proceed with the deal.Flipkart's CEO Kalyan Krishnamurthy played a crucial role in facilitating the acquisition and overseeing the transition process.Notable existing investors in Flipkart, such as Tencent Holdings Ltd and Tiger Global Management, were involved in the acquisition process.Hence, the correct option is b.
Q144
In May 2018, bus service between which two places of India and Nepal was launched?
✓ Correct answer: d) Ayodhya and Janakpur
ExplanationKey concept: Place in news Explanation: Indian PM Narendra Modi and Nepalese PM K P Sharma Oli jointly inaugurated a direct bus service between Janakpur and Ayodhya on May 11, 2018. Janakpur is home to the 20th-century Janaki Temple, dedicated to the Hindu goddess Sita, while Ayodhya is a sacred city for Hindus.The bus service is part of the Ramayana Circuit, aimed at promoting religious tourism in both Nepal and India.The Ramayana Circuit includes 15 destinations in India: Ayodhya, Nandigram, Shringverpur, and Chitrakoot in Uttar Pradesh. | | Defence Sitamarhi, Buxar, and Darbhanga in Bihar.Chitrkoot in Madhya Pradesh.Mahendragiri in Odisha.Jagdalpur in Chattisgarh.Nashik and Nagpur in Maharashtra.Bhadrachalam in Telangana.Hampi in Karnataka.Rameshwaram in Tamil Nadu.Hence, the correct option is d.
Q145
Which one of the following countries has recently formally notified its intention to withdraw from the International Criminal Court?
✓ Correct answer: c) Philippines
ExplanationKey concept:International Affairs Explanation: In 2018, the Philippines formally announced its decision to withdraw from the International Criminal Court (ICC).The ICC is a permanent international judicial institution tasked with prosecuting individuals for serious international crimes such as genocide, crimes against humanity, and war crimes.Headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands, the ICC operates independently of any state jurisdiction.The Philippines is an archipelagic country situated in Southeast Asia.Manila serves as the capital city of the Philippines.Rodrigo Duterte currently holds the position of President of the Philippines.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q146
Who among the following has recently been elected as the Prime Minister of China for a second term?
✓ Correct answer: a) Li Keqiang
ExplanationKey concept: Person in news Explanation: Li Keqiang is elected for a second five- year term as Prime Minister of China.Xi Jinping is currently serving as President of China.Yang Xiaodu is elected as Director of the National Supervisory Commission of China.Zhou Qiang is elected as President of the Supreme People's Court of China.Hence, the correct option is a.
Q147
Recently, the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act was completely removed from which one of the following States?
✓ Correct answer: c) Meghalaya
ExplanationKey concept: Defence and Security Explanation: The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA) was completely lifted from the state of Meghalaya.AFSPA remains applicable in states like Nagaland, Manipur (excluding Imphal Municipal area), Assam, and some parts of Arunachal Pradesh. is invoked in areas that are declared as disturbed.AFSPA grants the governor of the state or Union territory the authority to issue an official notification declaring a region as a "disturbed area".After the declaration, the central government decides whether to deploy armed forces in the affected area.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q148
Which one of the following organizations is not merged into a new umbrella scheme Rashtriya Yuva Sashaktikaran Karyakram (RYSK)'?
✓ Correct answer: c) National Service Scheme (NSS)
ExplanationKey concept: Government Schemes Explanation: Rashtriya Yuva Sashaktikaran Karyakram (RYSK): Initiated by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, RYSK seeks to empower youth and enable them to realize their full potential.Incorporated Schemes: Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS) National Youth Corps (NYC) National Programme for Youth and Adolescent Development (NPYAD) International Cooperation (IC) Youth Hostels (YH) Assistance to Scouting and Guiding Organisations National Discipline Scheme (NDS) National Young Leaders Programme (NYLP) National Service Scheme (NSS): Managed by the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports, NSS is a Central Sector Scheme designed to foster the personality and character development of young students through voluntary community service.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q149
In May 2018, who among the following was elected as the Prime Minister of Malaysia at the age of 92 ?
✓ Correct answer: c) Mahathir Mohamad
ExplanationKey concept: Person in news Explanation: Mahathir Mohamad, aged 92 years, was sworn in as the Malaysian PM following a surprising election victory.The oath-taking ceremony took place at the Istana Negara palace in Kuala Lumpur.Mahathir's election agenda focuses on financial progress.He succeeded Najib Razak.Mahathir Mohamad's historic win led to the ousting of the Barisan Nasional (BN) coalition, which had been in power since Malaysia's independence in 1957. Hence, the correct option is c.
Q150
Which one of the following films was awarded Best Feature Film in the National Film Awards, 2018?
✓ Correct answer: a) Village Rockstars
ExplanationKey concept: Awards and Prizes Explanation: 65th National Film Awards: Recognized outstanding achievements in Indian cinema.Dada Saheb Phalke Award: Conferred upon Vinod Khanna, honoring his lifetime contributions to Indian cinema.Best Director: Awarded to Jayaraj for the Malayalam film "Bhayanakam".Best Feature Film: Presented to "Village Rockstars", an Assamese film directed by Rima Das.Best Actor: Acknowledged Riddhi Sen for his performance in the Bengali film "Nagar Kirtan".Best Actress: Posthumously awarded to Sridevi for her role in the Hindi film "Mom"."Village Rockstars": Made waves internationally after its premiere at the Toronto International Film Festival (TIFF) 2017. Directed by self-taught filmmaker Rima Das, the film was written, edited, and co-produced by her as well.At the 65th National Film Awards, "Village Rockstars" received the prestigious "Swarna Kamal" award for Best Feature Film.Additionally, it secured accolades for Best Child Artist, Best Location & Sound Recordist, and Best Editing.Hence, the correct option is a.
Q151
15th Asia Media Summit was hosted in May 2018 in
✓ Correct answer: b) New Delhi
ExplanationKey concept: Summits and conference Explanation: 15th Asia Media Summit was hosted in May 2018 by Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, in collaboration with the IIMC, New Delhi and BECIL.First Time Hosted by India: This marked the first time India hosted the event.It was from 10th to 12th May 2018 in New Delhi.The summit is an annual gathering of the Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD) based in Kuala Lumpur.The theme for the summit was "Telling Our Stories – Asia and More".Hence, the correct option is b.
Q152
When was Startup India Hub operationalized to resolve queries and handhold startups?
✓ Correct answer: b) 2016
ExplanationKey concept: Government Schemes Explanation: The Startup India Hub was launched on April 1, 2016, to provide support and guidance to startups.Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Startup India initiative in 2016. The initiative aims to foster a robust ecosystem for nurturing innovation and startups within India.Its goal is to promote and encourage entrepreneurship among citizens.Hence, the correct option is b.
Q153
The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) aims to reduce particulate matter (PM) in at least 102 cities of India by by 2024 . The base year for the comparison of concentration is
✓ Correct answer: c) 2017
ExplanationKey Concept: Environment Explanation: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India has launched National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) in January, 2019 as a long-term, time-bound, national level strategy to tackle the air pollution problem across the country in a comprehensive manner.The NCAP targets to achieve 20% to 30% reduction in concentrations of PM10(particulate matter of diameter between 10 and 2.5 micrometer) and PM2.5(particulate matter of diameter 2.5 micrometer or less) by the year 2024, keeping 2017 as the base year for comparison of concentration.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q154
Name the theme of the annual report published by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) on State of World Population - 2019.
✓ Correct answer: c) Unfinished business - the pursuit of rights and choices for all
ExplanationKey Concept: Reports and Index Explanation: The annual flagship report 'State of World Population 2019' was launched by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) with the title “Unfinished business the pursuit of rights and choices”.The State of World Population is a yearly publication that examines and analyzes global population and demographic trends.It also focuses on specific regions, countries, and population groups, highlighting various problems and challenges they face.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q155
Which one of the following frontline destroyer of Indian Navy was decommissioned in May 2019 ?
✓ Correct answer: b) INS Ranjit
ExplanationKey Concept: Defence and Security Explanation: The Indian Navy's frontline missile destroyer INS Ranjit was decommissioned after 36 years of service in May 2019. INS Ranjit, the third of the five Kashin- class destroyers built by the erstwhile USSR, was commissioned in 1983. Over the years, the ship has the distinction of serving in both the western and eastern seaboard and has been the flagship of both the western and eastern Fleets.With a motto of 'Sada Rane Jayate' or 'Ever Victorious in Battle', INS Ranjit has been at the forefront in keeping the nation secure and participated in several operations Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q156
Which one among the following was the first country to declare 'Climate Emergency'?
✓ Correct answer: c) UK
ExplanationKey Concept: Environment Explanation: The first country to declare a climate and biodiversity emergency was the United Kingdom, which did so on May 1, 2019. Since then, several other countries have followed suit, including Canada and France.The decision camefollowed a speech by 16-year-old Swedish student Greta Thunberg, who urged UK MPs to take stronger measures against climate change.It also demanded that the government strive for carbon neutrality by 2050 and that ministries develop plans to rehabilitate the nation's ecology and establish a "zero waste economy".Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q157
'Kandhamal Haldi', which received GI tag recently, is a variety of turmeric indigenous to
✓ Correct answer: b) Southern Odisha
ExplanationKey Concept: Art and Culture Explanation: Kandhamal Haldi a variety of turmeric indigenous to southern Odisha received the Geographical indication (GI) tag.Odisha's Kandhamal Haldi (turmeric) is famous for its healing properties.Kandhamal Haldi has strong aroma and has a high medicinal value.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q158
INSPIRE is an ongoing initiative of Government of India for
✓ Correct answer: a) attraction of talent for science and research
ExplanationKey Concept: Government Schemes Explanation: Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research (INSPIRE) is a merit- based competitive and Gender-neutral scheme The INSPIRE Scheme aims to attract meritorious youth to study basic and natural sciences at the college and university level and to pursue research careers in both basic and applied science areas including engineering, medicine, agriculture and veterinary sciences.The ultimate aim is to expand the R&D base of the country.Components of INSPIRE scheme: Scholarship for Higher Education (SHE) that aims to enhance the rate of attachment of talented youth to undertake higher education in science- intensive programs.INSPIRE Fellowship offered to students to pursue PhD in Basic & Applied Sciences.INSPIRE Faculty Fellowship provides opportunities to the post- doctoral researchers in the age group of 27-32 years for 5 years INSPIRE Faculty Fellowship.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q159
Which one of the following is the correct arrangement of the countries in descending order according to Human Development Index (HDI) value?
✓ Correct answer: b) Norway, Switzerland, Australia, Ireland
ExplanationKey Concept: Reports and Index Explanation: Norway has the highest HDI value among the given countries and comes at the top.Switzerland, with the second-highest HDI value is second.Australia has the third-highest HDI value and Ireland has the lowest HDI value.The Human Development Index (HDI) was developed by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq, with help from Gustav Ranis of Yale University and Meghnad Desai of the London School of Economics.HDI was used to measure a country's development by the United Nations Development Program (UNDP)'s Human Development Report Office.HDI is a statistical tool used to measure a country's overall achievement in its social and economic dimensions.The social and economic dimensions of a country are based on the health of people, their level of education attainment and their standard of living.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q160
Who among the following was awarded Saraswati Samman for the year 2018 ?
✓ Correct answer: a) K Siva Reddy
ExplanationKey Concept: Awards and Prizes Explanation: The Saraswati Samman award for 2018 was conferred to Telugu poet K Siva Reddy, for his collection of poems titled Pakkaki Ottigilite (Turning Aside While Lying Down).Established by the KK Birla Foundation in 1991, Saraswati Samman is acknowledged as the nation's most esteemed and highest literary honor.The Saraswati Samman is an annual literary prize for exceptional prose or poetry in any of the 22 Indian languages specified in Schedule VIII of the Indian Constitution.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q161
Which one of the following is the name given by Indian Railways to the indigenously manufactured Train 18 ?
✓ Correct answer: b) Vande Bharat Express
ExplanationKey Concept: Polity Explanation: The Indian Railways launched India's first indigenous Semi High Speed train, Vande Bharat Express.The first Vande Bharat Express train was flagged off on February 15, 2019, on the New Delhi- Kanpur-Allahabad- Varanasi route.The Vande Bharat Express can run up to a maximum speed of 160 kmph and has travel classes like Shatabdi Train but with better facilities.It aims to provide a totally new travel experience to passengers.Since these trains were planned to be ready by 2018, they were named 'Train- 2018' and later 'Train 18'.The manufacturing of Train 18 was coincidentally completed 18 months after initiation.Later they were renamed as Vande Bharat Express.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q162
The Indian Air Force has recently acquired the AH-64E (I) - Apache Guardian helicopter. The helicopter is made in
✓ Correct answer: d) USA
ExplanationKey Concept: Defence and Security Explanation: First AH-64E (I) - Apache Guardian helicopter was handed over to the Indian Air Force at Boeing production facility in Mesa, Arizona, USA.The helicopter was made in USA.IAF had signed a contract with US Government and M/s Boeing Ltd in Sep 2015 for 22 Apache helicopters.The AH-64 E (I) helicopter is a significant step towards modernisation of Indian Air Force’s helicopter fleet.The helicopter has been customized to suit IAF’s future requirements and would have significant capability in mountainous terrain.The helicopter can carry out precision attacks at standoff ranges and operate in hostile airspace with threats from ground.Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q163
Which one of the following ships was deployed in 'Mission Sagar', which was sent to different countries carrying Food and COVID related items on 10 May 2020 ?
✓ Correct answer: a) INS Kesari
ExplanationKey concept: Defence and security.Explanation: INS Kesari was deployed in 'Mission Sagar' on May 10, 2020, to provide assistance to several countries during the Covid-19 pandemic.The countries aided included Maldives, Mauritius, Madagascar, Comoros, and Seychelles, which had requested India's support.The ship delivered essential Covid- related medicines to Mauritius, Madagascar, Comoros, and Seychelles, and provided approximately 600 tonnes of food items to the Maldives.Additionally, Mauritius received a special consignment of Ayurvedic medicines.Mission Sagar aligns with the Prime Minister's vision of Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR), emphasizing India's commitment to neighboring countries.The operation is coordinated closely with the Ministries of Defence and External Affairs.INS Kesari entered the Port of Male in the Republic of Maldives as part of Mission Sagar to deliver 600 tons of food provisions.Hence, the correct option is a.
Q164
Who among the following won the Fed Cup Heart Award, 2020?
✓ Correct answer: a) Sania Mirza
ExplanationKey concept: Sports Explanation: Sania Mirza won the Fed Cup Heart Award in 2020, becoming the first Indian to achieve this honor.She donated her $2,000 prize to the Telangana's CM Relief Fund.Sania secured over 10,000 votes out of 16,985 cast for this year's three regional Group I nominees in the Asia/Oceania zone.Sania Mirza has won six Grand Slam titles and reached the rank of doubles world no.1. She authored an autobiography titled "Ace Against Odds" in July 2016. Sania received the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratan Award in 2015, the Padma Bhushan in 2016, and the NRI of the Year award in 2016. Hence, the correct option is a.
Q165
What is the minimum reduction in projected demand of conventional energy at the end of five years as per the 'development of solar cities' programme?
✓ Correct answer: c) 10 per cent
ExplanationKey concept: Environment Explanation: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) initiated the "Development of Solar Cities" program, aiming for a minimum 10% reduction in conventional energy demand over five years.This reduction is achieved through a blend of energy efficiency measures and increased use of renewable energy sources within the city.The program targets support for 60 cities/towns to become "Solar/Green Cities," with each state having at least one city and a maximum of seven cities receiving assistance.Eligible cities should have a population ranging from 5 to 50 lakh, with potential relaxation for special category states, including the North-Eastern States.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q166
Which of the following statements about employment situation in India according to periodic Labour Force Survey 2017-18 is/are correct ?1. Construction sector gave employment to nearly one-tenth of urban male workforce in India2. Nearly one-fourth of urban female workers in India were working in manufacturing sector3. One-fourth of rural female workers in India were engaged in the agriculture sector Select the correct answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: b) 1 and 2 only
ExplanationKey concept: Reports and Indices Explanation: According to the Labour Force Survey 2017-18, 6.1% of India's labor force and 17.8% of young people in the labor force are unemployed.The construction sector provided employment to nearly one-tenth of the urban male workforce in India.In the 25-29 age group, the percentage share of unemployed rural females increased to 25.41% in 2017-18 from 22.6% in 2004-05. Conversely, in the 15-19 age group, the percentage share of unemployed rural females decreased to 12.7% in 2017-18 from 18% in 2004-05. Hence, the correct option is B.
Q167
Which one of the following has largest contribution to the Gross Revenue of Government of India
✓ Correct answer: b) Corporation Tax
ExplanationKey concept: Economy Explanation: Corporation Tax holds the largest share in the Gross Tax Revenue of the Government of India for the fiscal year 2019-20 (BE).For every rupee collected by the government, 68 paise come from both direct and indirect taxes combined.The states' share of taxes and duties constitutes the single-largest expense head, accounting for 23% of total spending.According to the Budget for 2019-20, Goods and Services Tax (GST) collections contribute 19 paise to every rupee of revenue.Corporation tax stands out as the primary source of income.Tax collections from companies are projected to be Rs 5,47,000 crore in 2021-22, slightly lower (1%) than 2019-20. Income tax collections are expected to rise by 7% annually in 2021-22, reaching Rs 5,61,000 crore.The disinvestment target for 2021-22 is set at Rs 1,75,000 crore, a significant increase compared to the Rs 50,304 crore disinvestment in 2019-20. Hence,the correct option is b.
Q168
Which one of the following is the top ranking country in the World Economic Forum's 74th Global Energy Transition Index?
✓ Correct answer: c) Sweden
ExplanationKey concept:Report and Index Explanation: Sweden holds the top position in the World Economic Forum's 74th Global Energy Transition Index.India, however, ranks 87th among 115 countries on this index.The top three countries are Sweden, Norway, and Denmark.India aims for improvements through subsidy reforms and expanding energy access rapidly, backed by strong political commitment and regulatory support for the energy transition.The Energy Transition Index is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF), developed in collaboration with Accenture.It assesses 115 countries based on their current energy system performance across three dimensions: Economic development and growth, Environmental sustainability, and Energy security and access.Additionally, it evaluates their preparedness to transition towards secure, sustainable, affordable, and inclusive energy systems.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q169
SAUBHAGYA, a Central Government scheme, is related to
✓ Correct answer: d) achieving universal household electrification in the country
ExplanationKey Concept: Government Schemes Explanation: SAUBHAGYA stands for Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana.It was launched on 25th September 2017. It is aimed to provide free electricity connections to all households(both poor families and APL families) in rural areas and poor families in urban areas.There are around 4 crore un-electrified households in the country.REC(Rural Electrification Corporation) is nodal agency for the implementation of the SAUBHAGYA scheme.Hence, the correct option is D i.e.' achieving universal household electrification in the country.'
Q170 · 2020
Which one of the following countries has suggested the name 'Amphan' to the cyclone that devastated parts of West Bengal and Bangladesh in May (2020)?
✓ Correct answer: b) Thailand
ExplanationKey concept: Place in news Explanation: The name "Amphan" originates from the Thai word for 'sky', and it was assigned by Thailand.The naming process is overseen by the World Meteorological Organisation/United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (WMO/ESCAP), which includes India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Pakistan, the Maldives, Oman, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.These countries collaborate to name cyclones in the region, with each contributing eight names to a list of 64 names finalized in 2004. In 2018, the WMO/ESCAP expanded to include five more countries: Iran, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, and Yemen.Cyclone Amphan struck the Odisha and West Bengal coast in May 2020, emerging as the strongest tropical cyclone to hit the Ganges Delta since the 2007 Sidr cyclone.It marked the fourth super cyclone to hit West Bengal and Kolkata since 1582, following occurrences in 1737, 1833, and 1942. Amphan holds the record as the costliest cyclone ever recorded in the North Indian Ocean, surpassing the previous record held by Cyclone Nargis in 2008. Hence, the correct option is b.
Q171
Operation Sadbhavna is an initiative of
✓ Correct answer: a) Indian Army
ExplanationKey concept: Defence and security Explanation: Operation Sadbhavana, also known as Operation Goodwill, is an initiative by the Indian Army in Jammu and Kashmir.It falls under their Military Civic Action programs and aims to "Win the Hearts and Minds" (WHAM) of the local population.The operation can also be interpreted as Operation Harmony, with its motto being "Jawan aur Awam, Aman Hai Muqaam".Major operations conducted by the Indian Army in Jammu and Kashmir include: Operation Rakshak: An ongoing counter-insurgency and counter- terrorism operation.Operation All Out: A joint operation involving Indian forces aimed at eliminating militants from Kashmir.Operation Calm Down: Launched after the death of Burhan Wani in 2016. Operation Sarp Vinash: Conducted to eliminate terrorists in the Hilkaka Poonch-Surankot area during April– May 2003. Hence, the correct option is a.
Q172
PAHAL, an initiative to transfer the subsidy to direct bank account of the beneficiaries, is related to
✓ Correct answer: a) LPG consumers
ExplanationKey concept: GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Explanation: 'PAHAL' acronym for 'Pratyaksha Hastaantarit Laabh', launched on June 01, 2013, as a Direct Benefit Transfer Scheme for LPG subsidy.Initially introduced in 291 districts by the Union Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.Modified and renamed as 'PaHal' on November 15, 2014, and relaunched in 54 districts.The modified scheme removed the necessity of an Aadhar number for consumers.Expanded nationwide on January 1, 2015, covering approximately 10 crore LPG consumers.Acknowledged by the Guinness Book of World Records as the world's largest cash transfer program (households).Objective: Aimed to reduce corruption by eliminating duplication or bogus LPG connections and their diversion.Hence,the correct option is a.
Q173
Who among the following was the Head of the Expert Committee on Variable Capital Company in India which has submitted its report recently?
✓ Correct answer: a) K. P. Krishnan
ExplanationKey concept: Appointment EXplanation: Dr. K.P. Krishnan led an expert committee on Variable Capital Company (VCC).The committee submitted its report on VCC feasibility in International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) to IFSCA Chairperson Shri Injeti Srinivas.IFSCA formed the Committee to assess the viability of VCCs as a fund management vehicle in IFSCs.The Committee explored the potential of introducing VCCs alongside existing legal structures for fund pooling in India.Traditional fund pooling methods in India include limited liability companies, limited liability partnerships, and trusts.The aim was to examine if VCCs could provide an additional option for asset managers to pool investors' funds in IFSCs.Hence, the correct option is a.
Q174
Volcano Mount Merapi, which erupted in January 2021, is situated in
✓ Correct answer: c) Indonesia
ExplanationKey concept:Places in news Explanation: Mount Merapi volcano erupted on January 27, 2021, on Java island, Indonesia.It is one of Indonesia's most active volcanoes, standing at 2,963 meters (9,721 feet) high.Currently, Mount Merapi is at the country's second-highest alert level.Indonesia has the highest number of volcanoes globally.A violent eruption of Mount Merapi occurred in 2010, resulting in the death of over 350 people.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q175
On the occasion of the World Environment Day, 2021, which one of the following was declared as a National Park in India?
✓ Correct answer: a) Raimona
ExplanationKey concept: Places in news Explanation: Raimona in Kokrajhar district has become Assam’s sixth national park.Assam Chief Minister Dr. Himanta Biswa Sarma announced this on World Environment Day 2021. Raimona joins the existing national parks of Kaziranga, Manas, Nameri, Orang, and Dibru-Saikhowa.The park covers 422 sq. km and is located within the Bodoland Territorial Region.Raimona is part of the Manas Biosphere Reserve and the Chirang- Ripu Elephant Reserve.Its southern boundary is defined by the Pekua river.Dihing Patkai has also been declared the seventh national park of Assam.Hence, the correct option is a.
Q176
Which one of the following films has won the Best Film Award in Environment Conservation category at the 67th National Film Awards, 2021?
✓ Correct answer: c) Water Burial
ExplanationKey concept: Awards and prizes Explanation: "Water Burial" won the Best Film Award for environmental conservation at the 67th National Film Awards 2021. Directed by Shantanu Sen, the film is inspired by the Assamese novel ‘Saba Kota Manuh’ by Yeshe Dorjee Thongchi.The film is based on the Monpa dialect of Arunachal Pradesh."Water Burial" received the National Film Award 'Swarna Kamal' for Best Film on Environment Conservation in the feature film category in India.The announcement was made on World Environment Day, June 5th.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q177
Heron drones, inducted by Indian forces for enhancing their surveillance capabilities, are acquired from
✓ Correct answer: c) Israel
ExplanationKey concept:Defence and security Explanation: The Indian Army has acquired advanced Israeli Heron drones under the emergency procurement clause.The Heron drone is a medium-altitude long-endurance unmanned aerial vehicle developed by Israel Aerospace Industries.The acquisition was made possible through emergency financial powers granted by the government.Under this provision, defense forces can purchase equipment worth Rs 500 crores to enhance their capabilities.The newly acquired drones feature improved anti-jamming capabilities compared to previous versions.This procurement aims to strengthen India's defense capabilities, particularly amid ongoing border tensions with China.Additionally, the Indian Navy has leased two Predator drones from General Atomics, further enhancing surveillance capabilities.Hence,the correct option is c.
Q178
Who among the following has withdrawn from the French Open Tennis Tournament, 2021 in second round after controversy over media obligations?
✓ Correct answer: d) Naomi Osaka
ExplanationKey concept: Sports Explanation: Naomi Osaka, a renowned Japanese tennis player, withdrew from the 2021 French Open.Her decision came after she was fined for not fulfilling media obligations.Osaka has been ranked No. 1 in singles by the Women's Tennis Association (WTA), marking the first time an Asian player achieved this.She gained recognition for her advocacy work and on-court success, including winning the US Open.Osaka was named one of Sports Illustrated's 2020 Sportspersons of the Year.She was also included in Time's list of the world's 100 most influential people in both 2019 and 2020. Hence, the correct option is d.
Q179
Cyclone 'Tauktae' was named by
✓ Correct answer: b) Myanmar
ExplanationKey concept: Environment and Geography Explanation: Cyclone Tauktae was the first cyclonic storm of 2021 originating from the Arabian Sea.It made landfall in southern Gujarat on May 17, 2021, classified as a Very Severe Cyclonic Storm (VSCS).The cyclone was named by Myanmar, with "Tauktae" meaning 'gecko' in the Burmese language.Tauktae is a tropical cyclone, characterized by strong winds and heavy rainfall.Hence, the correct option is b.
Q180
Indian Coast Guard Offshore Patrol Vessel 'Sajag', which was commissioned in May 2021, was constructed by
✓ Correct answer: d) M/s Goa Shipyard Limited
ExplanationKey concept:Defence and security Explanation: National Security Advisor Shri Ajit Doval commissioned the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) Offshore Patrol Vessel (OPV) Sajag digitally on May 29, 2021. The vessel, constructed by M/s Goa Shipyard Limited, was dedicated to safeguarding the nation's maritime interests.The commissioning reflects the government's 'Make in India' initiative, with ICG ships being constructed domestically in various shipyards, including private ones.The Indian Coast Guard is a multifaceted force capable of undertaking simultaneous operations and serving as the primary responder in sea- related emergencies.Hence, the correct option is d.
Q181
Which one of the following States ranked first on Sustainable Development Goal India Index, 2020-21 released by NITI Aayog?
✓ Correct answer: c) Kerala
ExplanationKey concept: Reports and Indices Explanation: The SDG India Index evaluates states and UTs on various fronts such as health, education, gender, economic growth, governance, climate action, and environmental concerns.Introduced in December 2018, it serves as India's primary tool for monitoring SDG progress.It fosters competitiveness among states by ranking them based on global goals achievement.States are classified into four categories: aspirant, performer, front-runner, and achiever.Currently, no states fall into the aspirant or achiever categories.15 states/UTs are performers, and 22 are front-runners.Top positions in the 2020-21 SDG India Index are held by Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Goa, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Sikkim, and Maharashtra.Kerala ranked first on Sustainable Development Goal India Index, 2020-21 released by NITI Aayog.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q182
Which one of the following books was declared winner of the 2021 International Booker Prize?
✓ Correct answer: a) At Night All Blood is Black
ExplanationKey concept: Awards and Prizes Explanation: In 2021, David Diop became the first French novelist to win the International Booker Prize for translated fiction, securing the award for his novel "At Night All Blood Is Black," translated into English for the first time.The £50,000 prize was split equally between Diop and his translator, Anna Moschovakis.The International Booker Prize, established in 2005, is a renowned literary award presented in the UK.Initially awarded biennially for an author's work, since 2016, it has been awarded annually to a single translated book published in the UK or Ireland.Notable past winners include Ismail Kadare, the inaugural recipient, and Marieke Lucas Rijneveld in 2020. The International Booker Prize is closely associated with the Booker Prize, which recognizes English-language novels.Hence, the correct option is a.
Q183
Scientists at CSIR-NCL Pune, with support from the Water Technology Initiative of the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India, have recently developed a novel hybrid technology to bring safe and healthy drinking water. What is the name of the hybrid technology?
✓ Correct answer: b) SWASTIIK
ExplanationKey concept: Science and technology Explanation: The CSIR-National Chemical Laboratory (CSIR-NCL) in Pune has devised a new technique for water disinfection using natural oils.Scientist Dr. V.M. Bhandari and his team at CSIR-NCL Pune have developed the novel hybrid technology called "SWASTIIK." SWASTIIK involves boiling liquid through pressure reduction (cavitation) and utilizes natural oils with antimicrobial properties.This technology efficiently eliminates harmful bacteria, including antibiotic- resistant strains.SWASTIIK is a cost-effective solution for water disinfection.Hence,the correct option is b.
Q184
Which one of the following is the theme of the World Ocean Day, 2021?
✓ Correct answer: b) The Ocean : Life and Livelihoods
ExplanationKey concept: Environment Explanation: World Oceans Day underscores oceans' significance in daily life.2021 theme: "Ocean: Life and Livelihoods," in line with the UN Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development (2021-2030).UN to host first hybrid celebration on June 8, 2022, at UN Headquarters, New York, with live broadcast.2022 theme: "Revitalization: collective action for the ocean." Organized by Division for Ocean Affairs and the Law of the Sea, supported by Oceanic Global, and sponsored by La Mer.It Aims to highlight collaborative efforts for ocean health and well- being.Hence, the correct option is b.
Q185
In the latest Chandler Good Government Index (CGGI), which classifies 104 countries in terms of government capabilities and outcomes, India has been ranked
✓ Correct answer: a) 49th
ExplanationKey concept: Report and Indices Explanation: India ranks 49th out of 104 countries in the Chandler Good Government Index (CGGI) 2021, with a score of 0.516. Reuben Abraham, CEO of IDFC Foundation and IDFC Institute and CGGI Advisory Panel Member, emphasizes civil service innovation and capacity building as primary priorities for the Indian government.The CGGI highlights the importance of assessing and investing in critical governance capabilities.Finland tops the CGGI list with a score of 0.848, followed by Switzerland, Singapore, the Netherlands, and Denmark.The Chandler Good Government Index, published by the Chandler Institute of Governance in Singapore.It is the world's most comprehensive measure of effective governance, assigning scores to countries based on their government's capabilities and performance.Hence, the correct option is a.
Q186
E-100 pilot project, launched in Pune in June 2021 , is related to the production and distribution of
✓ Correct answer: b) ethanol
ExplanationKey concept: Environment Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the E-100 pilot project in Pune on June 5, 2021. The project was initiated to mark World Environment Day.Its objective is to establish a network for ethanol production and distribution across India.Additionally, the Prime Minister released the 'Report of the Expert Committee on Road Map for Ethanol Blending in India 2020-2025' during the event.Hence, the correct option is b.
Q187
With reference to India's defence, consider the following helicopters :1. Cheetah2. Chetak3. Rudra Which of the above has/have turret gun, rocket system and air-to-air missile?
✓ Correct answer: d) 3 only
ExplanationKey Concept: Defence and Security Explanation: Rudra is the helicopter that has/have a turret gun, rocket system, and air-to- air missile.It is a 20 mm Turret Gun, 70 mm Rocket System And Air to Air Missile.Rudra is the Weaponised version of the Advanced Light Helicopter (Dhruv) designed and developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q188
As part of the Look/Act East Policy, which one of the following capitals of North-East Indian States is proposed to be connected with Bangladesh via rail route?
✓ Correct answer: a) Agartala
ExplanationKey concept: Current affairs Explanation: The Look/Act East Policy aims to connect one of Tripura's Agartala capitals with Bangladesh via a rail route.The policy, including the "northeast development concern," was incorporated in 1997, serving as a developmental model for the region.The proposed railway link between Agartala in Tripura and Akhaura in Bangladesh will facilitate the first train journey from the Northeast to Bangladesh.The rail connection will span from Gangasagar in Bangladesh to Nischintapur in India and from Nischintapur to Agartala railway station.Hence, the correct option is a.
Q189
The 'Stand-Up India Scheme' is related to which one of the following issues?
✓ Correct answer: c) Promoting entrepreneurship amongst women, SC and ST communities
ExplanationKey Concept: Government Schemes Explanation: Stand up India Scheme was launched on 5th April 2016 to promote entrepreneurship at grassroot level focusing on economic empowerment and job creation.It aims to promote entrepreneurship amongst women, Scheduled Castes (SC) & Scheduled Tribes (ST) categories, to help them in starting a greenfield enterprise in manufacturing, services or the trading sector and activities allied to agriculture.The scheme facilitates bank loans between Rs.10 lakh and Rs.100 lakh to at least one Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribe borrower and at least one woman borrower per bank branch of Scheduled Commercial Banks.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q190
Consider the following missiles :1. Agni-I2. BrahMos3. Dhanush Which of the above is/are cruise missile/missiles?
✓ Correct answer: b) 2 only
ExplanationKey Concept: Defence and Security Explanation: The BrahMos missile is a supersonic cruise missile developed by BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture between India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia's NPO Machinostroyenia.It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine as its first stage, which brings it to supersonic speed, and a liquid ramjet or the second stage that takes the missile closer to 3 Mach speed in cruise phase.The missile has a flight range of up to 290 km with supersonic speed all through the flight, leading to shorter flight time, consequently ensuring lower dispersion of targets, quicker engagement time and non- interception by any known weapon system in the world.It operates on ‘Fire and Forget Principle’, adopting varieties of flights on its way to the target.Prithvi and Dhanush are types of ballistic missiles.They follow a ballistic trajectory, meaning it is propelled by a rocket engine during the initial phase of its flight and then follows a trajectory governed by gravity.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q191
Ganga water is being shared at Farakka with which one of the following countries?
✓ Correct answer: c) Bangladesh
ExplanationKey concept: Places in News Explanation: The Farakka Barrage spans the Ganga River between Bangladesh and India.The Farakka Barrage Project is headquartered in Farakka, West Bengal, under the Union Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation.Established in 1961, the Farakka Barrage Project oversees the construction and management of the barrage.The barrage was commissioned in 1975, representing a significant achievement in water resource management.In 1996, a treaty was signed to resolve disputes between Bangladesh and India regarding the sharing of Ganges waters at Farakka, aiming to promote cooperation and resolve differences.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q192
Which one of the following statements is not true with regard to tribal welfare?
✓ Correct answer: c) The Special Area Development Programme aims at distribution of forest area produces to the tribals equitably.
ExplanationKey Concept: Tribal Welfare programmes Explanation: A special area development programme is part of the planning policy of India for balanced regional development which focused on the development of those specific regions which failed to keep pace with other parts of the country.It is focused developmental programmes for backward areas are expected to help reduce imbalances and speed up the economic development of these regions.Comprehensive Tribal Development Programme (CTDP) provides land development activities, roof house improvements, road maintenance, infrastructure improvements in GTR schools, drinking water, economic development schemes, and training skills to tribal people living below the poverty line.As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006- Individual Rights on land up to a maximum of 10 acres are granted to tribals who have lived in the forests before 13.12.2005. Villages in the forests are also granted community rights, which include a variety of rights.The Special Central Assistance to Tribal Sub Plan distributes dairy cows to tribal groups living below the poverty line.It also provides job placement training to Educated Tribal Youth for unemployed tribal youth through district employment centre.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q193
'Dhivehi' is a principal language of which one of the following Union Territories?
✓ Correct answer: c) Lakshadweep
ExplanationKey concept: Art and culture Explanation: Malayalam and English serve as the official languages of Lakshadweep, while Dhivehi is a principal language.Dhivehi, an Indo-Aryan language, is the official language of the Maldives and is spoken by around 300,000 individuals, primarily in the Maldives and Lakshadweep.Within Lakshadweep, the Mahl dialect of Dhivehi is prevalent.Dhivehi has undergone linguistic influences from various languages over time, including Arabic, Sinhalese, Malayalam, Hindi, French, Persian, Portuguese, and English.Dhivehi shares a linguistic heritage with Sinhalese and is believed to have emerged around 500 BC.Traditionally, Dhivehi is written in the Thaana script, which is read from right to left, but it was previously written in Dhives Akuru, read from left to right.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q194
Which one of the following aerospace companies designed and manufactured 'Falcon 9', a reusable rocket?
✓ Correct answer: d) SpaceX
ExplanationKey Concept: Science and Technology Explanation: Falcon-9 Rocket is the world’s first orbital class reusable, two-stage rocket designed and manufactured by SpaceX for the reliable and safe transport of people and payloads into Earth orbit and beyond.It can carry over 8,300 kg (double that weight) to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).The reusability allows SpaceX to re-fly the most expensive parts of the rocket, which in a result lowers the cost of space access.Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q195
Recently, India gave a coastal radar system to which one of the following countries?
✓ Correct answer: b) Maldives
ExplanationKey Concept: Coastal Surveillance Radar system is a part of India's programme to strengthen military diplomacy along the Indian Ocean region.Explanation: India gave a coastal radar system to Maldives in 2022. The Coastal Surveillance Radar system can identify small boats, fishing vessels, and ships, as well as monitor any illegal actions at sea.The Coastal Radar System, which is already operational and comprises 10 radar stations, contributed in enhancing maritime security for the Maldives and for the entire region.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q196
Mariupol city, frequently mentioned in news in the context of Russia-Ukraine conflict, is situated on the coast of-
✓ Correct answer: d) Sea of Azov
ExplanationKey concept: Place in news Explanation: Mariupol is situated on the northern coast of the Sea of Azov.The city is located at the mouth of the Kalmius river, which flows into the Sea of Azov.Prior to the 2022 Russian invasion and its subsequent capture by Russia, Mariupol ranked as the tenth-largest city in Ukraine and the second-largest in Donetsk Oblast.Mariupol was founded on the site of a former Cossack encampment called Kalmius and was granted city rights in 1778. Hence,the correct option is d.
Q197
The term 'Sagittarius A*', sometimes mentioned in news, refers to-
✓ Correct answer: a) a supermassive black hole in our Milky Way Galaxy
ExplanationKey point: Science and technology Explanation: Sagittarius A* (SgrA*) is a region thought to contain a supermassive black hole in our Milky Way Galaxy.It is estimated to be around 4 million times the mass of the Sun.Sagittarius A* appears as a ring shape.Sagittarius A* is positioned 27,000 light- years away from Earth.Researchers noted the greater difficulty in imaging Sagittarius A* compared to M87* due to its much smaller size, being only one-thousandth the size of M87*.Hence,the correct option is a.
Q198
Which one of the following is not a thrust area of the 'Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT)'?
✓ Correct answer: c) Motorized urban transport and capacity building
ExplanationKey concept: Government schemes Explanation: Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) was launched in June 2015. AMRUT is a centrally sponsored scheme and was launched by Hon'ble Prime Minister in 500 cities.The scheme aims to improve the quality of life in urban areas by providing basic civic amenities, with a particular focus on the poor and disadvantaged segments of society.The scheme is linked with the Swachh Bharat Mission, the government's flagship program for sanitation.AMRUT focuses on several thrust areas, including: Water supply Sewerage and septage management Stormwater drainage to reduce flooding Development of green spaces/parks Promotion of non-motorized urban transport.Hence, the correct option is c.
Q199
Recently, with which one of the following countries did India sign the 'Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement'?
✓ Correct answer: d) United Arab Emirates
ExplanationKey concept: MoUs and Agreements Explanation: Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is an advanced form of free trade agreement covering investment, services, and economic cooperation.It's broader in scope than traditional trade deals.Recently India signed CEPA on February 18, 2022 with UAE.CEPA discussions can extend to areas like trade facilitation, customs cooperation, competition policies, and intellectual property rights (IPR).India has previously signed CEPAs with South Korea and Japan, emphasizing the trend toward comprehensive economic partnerships.Hence, the correct option is d.
Q200
The World Wetland Day is celebrated on which one of the following dates every year?
✓ Correct answer: d) 2nd February
ExplanationKey concept: World Wetlands Day Explanation: World Wetlands Day is celebrated annually on February 2nd to raise awareness about the importance of wetlands.The UN General Assembly established February 2nd as World Wetlands Day with Resolution 75/317 on August 30, 2021. Wetlands are vital ecosystems crucial for biodiversity, climate regulation, freshwater supply, and global economies.The theme for the 2022 World Wetlands Day is "Wetlands Action for People and Nature," emphasizing the need for conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.2022 marks the 51st anniversary of World Wetlands Day, commemorating the adoption of the Convention on Wetlands on February 2, 1971, in Ramsar, Iran.Hence, the correct option is d.
Q201
Consider the following statements with reference to the latest guidelines issued by the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) :1. Data centres and service providers shall compulsorily report cyber security breaches within 24 hours.2. Virtual Private Network providers shall retain user data for at least five years and share records with authorities when required. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✓ Correct answer: b) 2 only
ExplanationKey concept:- Science and technology Explanation:- Established in 2004, the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) operates as a functional organization under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.CERT-In is the national nodal agency dedicated to responding to computer security incidents promptly.Its focus is on serving the Indian Cyber Community.Data centers and service providers shall compulsorily report cyber security breaches within 6 hours.Virtual asset service providers, virtual asset exchange providers, and custodian wallet service providers are required to store all data collected during the know your customer (KYC) process and records of financial transactions.It should be maintained and stored for a period of five years as per CERT-In regulations.Hence, the correct option is (b).
Q202
'The Kh-47M2 Kinzhal', a nuclearcapable hypersonic missile, belongs to which one of the following countries?
✓ Correct answer: c) Russia
ExplanationKey Concept: Defence and Security Explanation: The Kh-47M2 Kinzhal is a Russian- made nuclear-capable hypersonic aero-ballistic air-to-surface missile capable of carrying nuclear or conventional warheads.Ukraine said six of them were fired on Tuesday.It has a reported range of 1,500 to 2,000 km (930 to 1,240 miles) while carrying a payload of 480 kg.It may reach speeds of up to Mach 10 (12,250 kph), which is 10 times faster than the speed of sound.The missile weighs 9,500 pounds (4,300 kilogrammes).Once launched, a Kinzhal, which means “dagger” in Russian, rapidly achieves Mach 4 (3,000 miles per hour) and can reach speeds of up to Mach 10 (7,600mph).Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q203
The principle of 'common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities', often talked about in media, refers to-
✓ Correct answer: c) reduction of greenhouse gas emissions
ExplanationKey concept: Environment and geography Explanation: Within the UNFCCC, the 'common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities' (CBDR–RC) principle recognizes that countries have different abilities and responsibilities in tackling climate change.This principle divides nations into "Annex I" (developed) and "non-Annex I" (developing) categories.Developed nations, or those in Annex I, are assigned greater roles in mitigating climate change.The 1997 Kyoto Protocol enshrined CBDR–RC and the annex classifications into international law, making emissions reductions commitments mandatory for Annex I countries.CBDR–RC is related to the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions.It acknowledges the different capabilities and differing responsibilities of individual countries in addressing climate change.Hence, the correct option is (c).
Q204
Which of the following statements is/are correct?1. The 15th ASEAN-India Summit was held virtually in March 2022.2. European Union is India's largest regional trading partner. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
✓ Correct answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2
ExplanationKey concept: Summits and conferences Explanation:- India recently participated in the 18th India-ASEAN Summit hosted by Brunei, the current Chair of ASEAN.The 15th ASEAN-India Summit was held in Manila, the Philippines, on November 14, 2017. The year 2022 was marked as the India-ASEAN Friendship Year by the leaders, emphasizing the close ties between the two.The United States emerged as India's largest trading partner in 2021-22, surpassing China, indicating deepening economic connections between the two nations.The European Union (EU) stands as India's third-largest trading partner, contributing to €88 billion in goods trade in 2021. It represents 10.8% of India's total trade, following the USA at 11.6% and China at 11.4%.Hence the correct option is (d).
Q205
Which of the following statements about 'Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat' programme is/are correct?1. It was announced in the year 2014.2. Its aim is to create an environment which promotes learning between the States by sharing best practices and experiences. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
✓ Correct answer: b) 2 only
ExplanationKey Concept: Government Schemes Explanation: Ek Bharat Shrestha Bharat’ programme, was launched in 2015 to enhance interaction & promote mutual understanding between people of different states/UTs through the concept of state/UT pairing.As part of the initiative, states have to conduct activities to promote a structured cultural connection in the areas of language learning, culture, traditions & music, tourism & cuisine, sports and sharing of best practices, etc. It aims to actively enhance interaction between people of diverse cultures living in different States and UTs in India, with the objective of promoting greater mutual understanding amongst them.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q206
The technology known as 'Electromagnetic Air Lift System' is sometimes talked about in reference to-
✓ Correct answer: b) launching aircraft from warships
ExplanationKey Concept: Defence and Security Explanation: The U.S. Navy to launch the first ship- board tests of a new Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch System designed to replace steam catapults and propel fighter jets and other aircraft off the deck of an aircraft carrier.Due to its flexible architecture, EMALS can launch a wide variety of aircraft weights and can be used on a variety of platforms with differing catapult configurations.The Indian Navy also plans to integrate the US-made EMALS catapults into its future supercarriers.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q207
Consider the following statements :1. Mirage 2000 is a twin-engine fighter jet.2. HAL Tejas is a delta-winged fighter jet.3. Rafale is a hypersonic fighter jet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✓ Correct answer: b) 2 only
ExplanationKey Concept: Defence and Security Explanation: The Dassault Mirage 2000 is a French multirole, single-engine, delta wing, fourth-generation jet fighter manufactured by Dassault Aviation.It was designed in the late 1970s as a lightweight fighter to replace the Mirage III for the French Air Force (Armée de l'air).The HAL Tejas is an Indian single- engine, advanced 4th generation delta wing multirole jet fighter designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) and manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force (IAF) and Indian Navy.The Dassault Rafale is a French twin- engine, canard delta wing, multirole fighter aircraft designed and built by Dassault Aviation.It is a fully versatile aircraft capable of carrying out all combat aviation missions, including air superiority and air defense, close air support, in-depth strikes, reconnaissance, anti-ship strikes, and nuclear deterrence.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q208
Nowadays, 'nonfungible tokens' are talked about in the context of-
✓ Correct answer: a) digital assets on a blockchain
ExplanationKey point: Economy Explanation: An NFT, or non-fungible token, is a unique data unit stored on a blockchain ledger.NFTs can be bought and sold and are often associated with digital files such as photos, videos, and audio.Each NFT represents a different underlying asset and can have its own value.NFTs serve as digital certificates of ownership for real-world items like art, video clips, and music.Blockchain technology, the foundation of NFTs, is a distributed database shared among nodes in a computer network.Blockchains ensure data fidelity and security without the need for a central authority, fostering trust among network participants.NFT is in context of digital assets on a blockchain Hence. the correct option is a.
Q209
'Operation Sankalp' was initiated and implemented by the-
✓ Correct answer: c) Indian Navy
ExplanationKey Concept: Defence and Security Explanation: Indian Navy’s stealth Frigate, INS Talwar was deployed for Operation Sankalp, and commemorated the 3rd continuous year of Indian Navy’s presence in the Gulf for protection of India’s Maritime Interests.In the milieu of the deteriorating security situation in the Gulf region, post attacks on merchant ships in the Gulf of Oman in June 2019, Indian Navy had commenced Maritime Security Operations, code named ‘Op SANKALP’, in the Gulf Region on 19 June 2019 to ensure safe passage of Indian Flag Vessels transiting through the Strait of Hormuz.Indian Navy monitored the situation in the Gulf region and maintaining presence in the region to ensure security of our sea-borne trade and the safety of Indian Flag Merchant Vessels transiting through the region.The Indian Navy stands committed to protection of the nation's Maritime Interests.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q210
What are Airawat, Param Siddhi, Pratyus and Mihir?
✓ Correct answer: a) Super Computers of India
ExplanationKey concept: A supercomputer is a type of computer with a high level of performance as compared to a general-purpose computer.Explanation: PARAM Siddhi-AI, Pratyush, and Mihir are some of the names of supercomputers in India, with a high level of performance in comparison to a general-purpose computer.Airawat PSAI, stands as India's largest and fastest AI supercomputing system, with a remarkable speed of 13,170 teraflops (Rpeak).AIRAWAT's manufacturer is Netweb Technologies.It's operating system is Ubuntu 20.04. 2 LTS.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q211
'Basel Convention', 'Rotterdam Convention' and 'Stockholm Convention' is related to which of the following?
✓ Correct answer: b) Management of Pollutants
ExplanationKey concept: Environment and Geography Explanation: Basel convention was adopted in 1989 by the Conference of Plenipotentiaries in Basel, Switzerland, the “Basel Convention on the Control of Trans-boundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal”, generally known as the Basel Convention, came into force in 1992. It is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations, and specifically to prevent transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries.Rotterdam Convention on Prior Informed Consent Procedures (PIC) entered into force in 2004. It is a multilateral treaty to promote shared responsibilities in relation to importation of hazardous chemicals.Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is an international environmental treaty, signed on 22 May 2001 in Stockholm and effective from 17 May 2004, that aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs) Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q212
Consider the following statements about IPL cricket tournament :1. Two teams won the tournament five times each.2. Chennai Super Kings remained runner-up in five editions of the tournament.3. On three occasions, the final was played abroad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✓ Correct answer: a) 1,2 and 3
ExplanationKey concept: The Indian Premier League, also known as the TATA IPL for sponsorship reasons, is a men's Twenty20 cricket league held annually in India.Explanation: In 2023, Chennai Super Kings (CSK) won their fifth Indian Premier League (IPL) championship, equivalent to the record set by Mumbai Indians.They secured a five-wicket victory over the Gujarat Titans (GT) amidst a backdrop of fireworks and jubilant celebrations.In 2009, the tournament was held in South Africa, while the 2014 (partial season), 2020 (full season) and 2021 (half season) were held in UAE.So, three times IPL has been played abroad.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q213
Which of the following statements is/are correct about KAVACH-2023?1. It is a joint coordination committee of all three wings of India's armed forces to protect India's borders.2. It is India's national level hackathon jointly launched by AICTE and BPRD to tackle cyber threats. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: b) 2 only
ExplanationKey concept: KAVACH-2023 aims to to identify innovative ideas and technological solutions for addressing the cyber security and cybercrime challenges of the 21st century.Explanation: KAVACH-2023 is a National Level Hackathon to tackle cyber threats and provide effective solutions.It is a competition in which participants use technology to achieve an objective.The initiative is jointly conducted by Ministry of Education’s Innovation Cell, All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) and Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C).Its aims to challenge the country’s innovative minds to conceptualize frameworks focusing on cybersecurity issues while using artificial intelligence, machine learning, automation, big data and cloud computing.It includes 20 unique and important matters such as women’s safety apps, obscenity blocker solutions, phishing detection solutions, dark web crawlers, citizen safety apps and malware analysis tools.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q214
Which of the following statements about Quad is/are correct?1. It is a group of four countries, namely, India, Australia, USA and France.2. Maritime cooperation is an important binding force among members of the Quad.3. The Quad members formed a working group on COVID-19 vaccines. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: c) 2 and 3 only
ExplanationKey Concept: Quad is aimed at promoting regional security and economic cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region.Explanation: QUAD, also known as the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue is a strategic forum comprising four countries: the United States, Japan, India, and Australia The Quad focuses on issues such as maritime security, infrastructure development, and supply chain resilience.The trilateral India-US-Japan Malabar naval exercises expanded to include Australia, marking the first official grouping of the Quad since its resurgence in 2017 and the first joint military exercises among the four countries in over a decade.It also developed a Quad Vaccine Partnership, to boost vaccine partnership and has a Covid-19 Global Action Plan to enhance coordination in recovery efforts during the Covid pandemic.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q215
Which of the following are India's G20 priorities?1. Green Development2. Women-led Development3. Climate Finance4. Digital Public Infrastructure Select the correct answer using the code given below:
✓ Correct answer: d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ExplanationKey Concept: India held the Presidency of the G20 from December 1, 2022 to November 30, 2023. Explanation: The theme of India’s G20 Presidency - “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” or “One EarthOne FamilyOne Future”.India's G20 Priorities are as follows: Green Development, Climate Finance & LiFE Climate change is a key priority for India’s presidential Presidency, with a particular focus towards not only climate finance and technology, but also ensuring just energy transitions | | Defence for developing nations across the world.India offers the world LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) - a behaviour- based movement that draws from our nation's rich, ancient sustainable traditions to nudge consumers, and in-turn markets, to adopt environmentally-conscious practices.Accelerated, Inclusive & Resilient Growth An accelerated, resilient and inclusive growth is a cornerstone for sustainable development.During its G20 Presidency, India aims to focus on areas that have the potential to bring structural transformation.Accelerating progress on SDGs India acknowledges the detrimental impact of COVID-19, which changed the current decade of action into a decade of recovery.India wants to focus on recommitting G20's efforts to achieving the targets laid out in the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Technological Transformation & Digital Public Infrastructure India can foreground its belief in a human-centric approach to technology, and facilitate greater knowledge-sharing in priority areas like digital public infrastructure, financial inclusion, and tech- enabled development in sectors ranging from agriculture to education Multilateral Institutions for the 21st century India's G20 priority will be to continue pressing for reformed multilateralism that creates more accountable,inclusive just, equitable and representative multipolar international system that is fit for addressing the challenges in the 21st century.Women-led development India hopes to use the G20 forum to highlight inclusive growth and development, with women empowerment.Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q216
'Operation Kaveri' is a rescue operation launched by the Government of India to evacuate Indian citizens who were stranded in:
✓ Correct answer: d) Sudan
ExplanationKey concept: During the evacuation under Operation Kaveri, Indians will be transferred from Sudan to the capital city of Khartoum where they will be flown back to India.Explanation: Operation Kaveri' is a rescue operation launched by Government of India to evacuate Indian citizens who are stranded in Sudan.It was launched on April 24, 2023 in response to the crisis in Sudan.A team of officials including the Ministry of External Affairs, the Indian Air Force, and the Indian embassy in Sudan has been appointed by the Indians to ensure the proper process of evacuation gets followed.Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q217
The journey of the First Phase of Sagar Parikrama Yatra, an initiative of the Government of India, was started from :
✓ Correct answer: d) Gujarat
ExplanationKey Concept: The Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Government of India has launched the ‘Sagar Parikrama’ program.Explanation: Sagar Parikrama program is being organized through a pre-decided sea route covering coastal states/UTs.The main objectives of ‘Sagar Parikrama’ are : to facilitate interaction with fishermen, coastal communities and stakeholders so as to disseminate information of various fisheries related schemes and programs being implemented by the Government; demonstrating solidarity with all fisher folk, fish farmers and concerned stakeholder as a spirit of Aatmanirbhar Bharat; to promote responsible fisheries with focus on sustainable balance between the utilization of marine fisheries resources for food security of nation and livelihoods of coastal fisher communities protection of marine ecosystems.Phase I Programme of 'Sagar Parikrama' was organized in Gujarat, started on 5th March, 2022 from Mandvi and ended on 6th March 2022 at Porbandar, Gujarat.Phase II of Sagar Parikrama started on 22nd September 2022 from Mangrol to Veraval and ended at Mul Dwaraka, on 23rd September 2022 from Mul Dwaraka to Madhwad.Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q218
Which of the following is/are not correct about the Mother's Absolute Affection Programme?1. Allows all pregnant women to absolutely free and no-expense delivery in public health institutions.2. Provides assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal care.3. Promotes undiluted focus on breastfeeding.4. Provides medical and nutritional care to severely acute malnourished children. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: c) 1,2 and 4 only
ExplanationKey Concept: Mothers’ Absolute Affection (MAA) is implemented to improve breastfeeding coverage which includes early initiation of breastfeeding and exclusive breastfeeding for first six months Explanation: MAA-Mother’s Absolute Affection'’ is a nationwide programme launched in an attempt to bring undiluted focus on promotion of breastfeeding and provision of counselling services for supporting breastfeeding through health systems.The programme has been named ‘MAA’ to signify the support a lactating mother requires from family members and at health facilities to breastfeed successfully.The chief components of the MAA Programme are Community awareness generation, Strengthening inter personal communication through ASHA, Skilled support for breastfeeding at Delivery points in Public health facilities, and Monitoring and Award/recognition.The programme follows an age- appropriate complementary feeding practices through capacity building of frontline health workers and comprehensive IEC campaigns.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q219
Which of the following are the objectives of SAARC?1. To promote the welfare of the peoples of South Asia and to improve the quality of life2. To promote and strengthen collective self- reliance among the countries of South Asia3. To contribute to mutual trust, understanding and appreciation of one another's problems4. To work towards ending cross-border terrorism Select the correct answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: b) 1,2 and 3 only
ExplanationKey concept: SAARC stands for South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation is an intergovernmental organization for economic development and regional integration.Explanation: SAARC was established on 8 December 1985. Its member countries are—Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Afghanistan (2005) The Headquarters and Secretariat Of the Association are at Kathmandu, Nepal.SAARC comprises 3% of the world’s area, 21% of the world’s population and 3.8% (2018) of the global economy Objectives of the SAARC: To promote the welfare of the people of South Asia and to improve their quality of life.To accelerate economic growth, social progress and cultural development in the region and to provide all individuals the opportunity to live in dignity and to realize their full potentials.To promote and strengthen collective self-reliance among the countries of South Asia.To contribute to mutual trust, understanding and appreciation of one another’s problems.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q220
'Rail Vikas Nigam Limited' is a :
✓ Correct answer: b) Navaratna CPSE
ExplanationKey concept: Rail Vikas Nigam Limited is an Indian central public sector enterprise which works as the construction arm of the Ministry of Railways for project implementation and transportation infrastructure development.Explanation: Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL) has now been promoted to 'Navratna' category of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSE) from Category-I Miniratna.This means the company will have more autonomy in terms of investment, setting up joint venture and other financial decisions.RVNL has been assigned the following functions:1. Undertaking project development and execution of works covering full project life cycle.2. Creating Project specific SPVs for individual works, if required.3. On completion of a Railway project by RVNL, the concerned Zonal Railway will undertake its operation and maintenance.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q221
Which one of the following Indian Naval Ships has recently concluded a 17,000-nm trans- ocean intercontinental voyage?
✓ Correct answer: d) INSV Tarini
ExplanationKey concept: Defence ans Security Explanation: INSV Tarini is returning home after successfully completing a 17000-nm long trans-ocean inter-continental voyage in seven months.The Navika Sagar Parikrama by six women naval officers increased the popularity of ocean sailing within the navy and the country.The current sailing expedition of INSV Tarini is part of the run up towards the Navy’s next big project to send a woman to circumnavigate the globe - Solo.Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q222
Exercise Ajeya Warrior is a biennial training event between the Indian Army and the army of :
✓ Correct answer: b) United Kingdom
ExplanationKey Concept: The 7th edition of Joint military exercise “AJEYA WARRIOR-23” between India and the United Kingdom is being conducted at Salisbury Plains, United Kingdom.Explanation: Exercise AJEYA WARRIOR is a biennial training event with the United Kingdom which is conducted alternatively in the United Kingdom and India, the last edition was held at Chaubatia, Uttarakhand in October 2021. The aim of the exercise is to build positive military relations, imbibe each other’s best practices and promote the ability to operate together while undertaking company-level sub- conventional operations in urban and semi-urban environments under UN mandate.It also aims to develop inter-operability, bonhomie, camaraderie, and friendship between the two armies.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q223
NISAR satellite is manufactured jointly by Indian Space Research Organisation and :
✓ Correct answer: b) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
ExplanationKey concept: NISAR will be the first satellite mission to use two different radar frequencies (L-band and S-band) to measure changes in our planet's surface.Explanation: National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) have jointly manufactured an earth science satellite named, NISAR (NASA- ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar).It is an SUV-size satellite weighing 2,800 kilograms.It consists of both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments, which makes it a dual- frequency imaging radar satellite.It is capable of penetrating clouds and can collect data day and night regardless of the weather conditions.The spacecraft will orbit the Earth in a sun synchronous orbit of 747 Km with an inclination of 98.4 degree for a 12- day repeat cycle.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q224
Which of the following statements about Organization for Security and Cooperation in Europe (OSCE) are correct ?1. There are total 57 states from Europe, Central Asia and America.2. It offers a forum for political negotiations and decision-making in the field of early warning, conflict prevention, crisis management and post-conflict rehabilitation.3. OSCE has the primary responsibility of providing military security in the European Region.4. The decisions of OSCE are legally binding. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: b) 1,2 and 3 only
ExplanationKey Concept: With 57 participating States in North America, Europe and Asia, the OSCE – the Organization for Security and Co- operation in Europe – is the world’s largest regional security organization.Explanation: The OSCE works for stability, peace and democracy for more than a billion people, through political dialogue about shared values and through practical work that aims to make a lasting difference.The OSCE primary responsibility is enhancing border management and security while facilitating legitimate travel and commerce, protecting human rights and promoting human contacts.The OSCE works in conflict prevention and resolution, facilitating settlements of conflicts and promoting peacebuilding and post-conflict rehabilitation.Decisions are taken by consensus on a politically, but not legally binding basis.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q225
Which of the following statements is/are correct about 'Action for Climate Empowerment' (ACE)?1. It is a term adopted by the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change.2. This term is related to the Paris Agreement. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: c) Both 1 and 2
ExplanationKey Concept: Implementation of ACE elements is crucial to the global response to climate change.Explanation: Action for Climate Empowerment (ACE) is a term adopted by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to denote work under Article 6 of the Convention (1992) and Article 12 of the Paris Agreement.The over-arching goal of ACE is to empower all members of society to engage in climate action, through the six ACE elements - climate change education and public awareness, training, public participation, public access to information, and international cooperation on these issues.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q226
The annual Kheer Bhawani Mela is organized at :
✓ Correct answer: b) Kashmir Valley
ExplanationKey Concept: Kheer Bawani, the most revered Holy Temple Shrine of Kashmiri Brahmans Explanation: Mela Kheer Bhawani festival was celebrated in Jammu and Kashmir in the month of June.The Goddess Mata Ragnya Devi is symbolised as a sacred spring at Tula Mula village, near (27 kms) Srinagar, Kashmir in J&K India.The spring of Kheer Bhawani is quite large and has always been held in veneration by the Brahman population of Srinagar.The Temple, dedicated to the Goddess Mata Kheer Bhawani (originally Bhawani Mata), has been constructed over a Sacred Spring.The Temple-Spring complex is affectionately known as Kheer Bhawani as thousands of devotees offer milk and 'kheer' to the Sacred Spring.Kheer Bhawani is considered to be the Presiding Deity of most of the Kashmiri Brahmans.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q227
What is 'Climate Neutral Now' initiative?1. It encourages organizations and other interested stakeholders to act now in order to achieve a carbon neutral world by 2030.2. It derives its aims from the Paris Agreement. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: b) 2 only
ExplanationKey concept: The initiative was launched in 2015 based on a mandate to promote the voluntary use of carbon market mechanisms recognized under the Convention.Explanation: The Climate Neutral Now Initiative is an initiatives launched by the UNFCCC secretariat to increase climate action by engaging non-Party stakeholders (sub- national governments, companies, organizations, individuals).The Climate Neutral Now Initiative encourages and supports organizations to act now to achieve a climate neutral world by 2050, as enshrined in the Paris Agreement.It is a tool to promote additional voluntary action on climate and to provide recognition for it.The initiative is not a certification scheme for its participants.An organization can become a participant by signing the Climate Neutral Now Pledge, following the three steps (Measure, Reduce, Contribute) and reporting on its actions and achievements annually.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q228
Consider the following statements about Khelo India University Games (KIUG) :1. The first edition of KIUG was held in Odisha.2. The name of the mascot of the third edition of KIUG was Jeetu.3. The first edition of KIUG was postponed due to COVID. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✓ Correct answer: c) 1 and 2 only
ExplanationKey Concept:bKhelo India University Games (KIUG) is an annual national sports competition organized by the Government of India with the aim of promoting sports culture and nurturing young talent at the university level.Explanation: The third edition of the Khelo India University Games (KIUG) began in Uttar Pradesh.The third edition of the Khelo India University Games concluded at the IIT BHU campus in Varanasi.The mascot of the 3rd edition was Jeetu.Mascot Jeetu represents Barasingha.It is an amazing mammal, with a powerful physique and remarkable speed.The first Khelo India University Games were hosted in 2020 at the Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology (KIIT), Odisha.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q229
Which one among the following cities was included as the 'City of Music' in the year in the UNESCO's Creative Cities Network?
✓ Correct answer: d) Gwalior
ExplanationKey Concept: Art and Culture Gwalior was designated as the UNESCO “City of Music'' while Kozhikode was designated as the UNESCO “City of Literature”, in June 2024. Explanation: Almost 300 cities around the world which currently make up this network.Their objective is to work together towards placing creativity and cultural industries at the heart of their development plans at the local level and cooperating actively at the international level.UNESCO recognised Gwalior as the City of Literature for its contribution to music.Alongside Gwalior, Kozhikode was recognized as the 'City of Literature'.The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was created in 2004. It aims to promote cooperation with and among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development.Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q230
Which one among the following statements with regard to India's maritime initiative, SAGAR, is correct?
✓ Correct answer: b) It aimed at promoting maritime cooperation with countries of the Indian Ocean Region
ExplanationKey Concept: International Relations Why in news?Prime Minister Narendra Modi's swearing in ceremony was attended by Sri Lanka, Maldives, Seychelles, Bangladesh, Mauritius, Nepal and Bhutan which showcased India’s commitment to NFP and SAGAR vision.Explanation: Security And Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) concept was first articulated in 2015. SAGAR is primarily focused on enhancing maritime cooperation and security among nations in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR), promoting collaborative efforts to address security challenges and foster economic growth through shared maritime resources and capabilities .It is India's strategic vision for the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q231
Which of the following does NOT show an improvement in rural areas from the National Family Health Survey 4 to National Family Health Survey 5 ?
✓ Correct answer: c) Anaemia in children
ExplanationKey Concept: Reports and Index Why in news?The sixth round of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-6) is being conducted in India between 2023 and 2024. Explanation: NFHS provides high quality, reliable and comparable data on population dynamics and health indicators as well as data on emerging issues in health and family welfare and associated domains, so as to assist the policy- makers and programme implementing agencies for setting the benchmarks1. Infant mortality rate: This has shown improvement, decreasing from 46.0 per 1,000 live births in NFHS-4 to 38.4 in NFHS-5.2. Obesity in women: The data indicates that the percentage of women with a Body Mass Index (BMI) below normal decreased from 26.7% in NFHS-4 to 21.2% in NFHS-5, suggesting an improvement in nutrition and health, but it doesn't directly address obesity rates.3. Anaemia in children: The prevalence of anaemia among children aged 6-59 months increased from 59.5% in NFHS-4 to 68.3% in NFHS-5, indicating a deterioration rather than an improvement.4. Total fertility rate: The total fertility rate decreased from 2.4 children per woman in NFHS-4 to 2.1 in NFHS-5, showing improvement.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q232
Which of the following statements with regard to the Anoop Barenwal v. Union of India ( ) case is/are correct?1. The case was heard by a Constitutional Bench2. According to the judgment, the grounds for removal of Election Commissioners shall be the same as the Chief Justice of India Select the answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: a) 1 only
ExplanationKey Concept: Polity Why in news?The Supreme Court in January 2024 rejected a request for a interim stay to the new law that removes the Chief Justice of India from the panel responsible for selecting the Chief Election Commissioner and election commissioners.Explanation: Article 324 of the Indian Constitution states that the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs) are appointed by the President, subject to parliamentary law.In Anoop Baranwal vs Union of India – a judgment delivered on 2nd March 2023 – a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that the selection of the Chief Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners would be done by a three-member Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition (or the leader of the largest opposition party in Parliament), and the Chief Justice of India.Hence, 1 is correct.The Court, thus, altered the mode of selection, where the CEC is appointed by the President, acting on the advice of the Prime Minister.The judgment did not established that the grounds for removing Election Commissioners.Hence, 2 is not correct.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q233
Which of the following statements with regard to National Logistics Policy (NLP) is NOT correct ?
✓ Correct answer: d) NLP would provide an opportunity for deleveraging balance sheets and providing fiscal space for investment in new infrastructure assets
ExplanationKey Concept: Economy Explanation: The National Logistics Policy (NLP) was launched by the Government of India in 2022. The policy aims to streamline and enhance the efficiency of logistics in India, reducing costs and improving the movement of goods across the country.The primary objectives of the NLP include reducing logistics costs, improving efficiency, and fostering a more integrated logistics ecosystem in India.It aims to create new job opportunities in the logistics sector and related industries.Deleveraging balance sheets typically refers to reducing debt levels on the balance sheets of companies or government entities.While NLP aims to improve logistics infrastructure and efficiency, it does not directly focus on deleveraging balance sheets or providing fiscal space for investment.The policy is more about optimizing logistics rather than financial restructuring or balance sheet management.Hence,Statement 4 is not correct.Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q234
Consider the following statements about the emblem of the Milano Cortina Winter Olympic and Paralympic Games :1. The name of the emblem is 'Futura'2. The emblem of the Games was decided by a popular vote for the first time in the history of the Olympic Which of the above statements is/are correct?
✓ Correct answer: c) Both 1 and 2
ExplanationKey Concept: Sports Why in news?The 2026 Winter Olympics and also known as Milano Cortina 2026 is an upcoming international multi-sport event scheduled to take place in 2026 in three regions, with the Italian cities of Milan and Cortina d'Ampezzo hosting.Explanation: This will be the fourth Olympic Games hosted in Italy, which previously hosted the 1956 Winter Olympics in Cortina d'Ampezzo, the 1960 Summer Olympics in Rome, and the 2006 Winter Olympics in Turin.The official emblem for the Milano Cortina 2026 Games is indeed named "Futura" .The emblem was chosen through a public vote, marking the first instance in Olympic history where the public participated in selecting the Games' logo.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q235
"Mission Shakti" (DRDO) is the name given by India to
✓ Correct answer: c) Anti-Satellite Missile
ExplanationKey Concept: Science and Technology Why in news?The DRDO's Mission Shakti was a successful anti-satellite (ASAT) missile test that took place on March 27, 2019. Explanation: Mission Shakti was an anti-satellite (ASAT) missile test conducted by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) on March 27, 2019, where a satellite in low Earth orbit was targeted and destroyed.Mission Shakti was undertaken to use rocket to destroy an orbiting satellite.The successful mission demonstrated DRDO’s technical prowess and ability to defend country’s assets in space, the 4th dimension of warfare.The mission was one of the most complex operation under taken by DRDO in which a missile launched from ground had to hit and neutralise with pinpoint accuracy a fast-moving satellite in orbit hundreds of kilometres away.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q236
Which one among the following statements with regard to the United Nations Climate Change Conference ( ) is NOT correct?
✓ Correct answer: b) It recognized the need to limit global warming to
ExplanationKey Concept: Environment Why in news?In December 2023, the United Nations Climate Change conference, COP28, has concluded with a historic agreement to transition away from fossil fuels.Explanation: The major outcome from COP 28 included the decision on Outcome of the First Global Stocktake.Another major outcome of COP 28 is the agreement on the operationalization of the Loss and Damage Fund and its funding arrangements.After much deliberations, the final agreement called upon countries to contribute towards “transitioning away” from fossil fuels which is to achieve net zero by 2050”.COP28 also includes accelerating efforts towards the phase-down of unabated coal power, phasing out inefficient fossil fuel subsidies.In a major step forward, Parties agreed on targets for the Global Goal on Adaptation (GGA) and its framework, which identify where the world needs to get to in order to be resilient to the impacts of a changing climate and to assess countries’ efforts.To limit the global temperature increase to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels, while pursuing efforts to restrict it to 1.5°C was the goal of COP21 in Paris in 2015. Hence, b is not correct.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q237
Which of the following statements with regard to the outcomes of the talks between the Prime Minister of India and the President of UAE held in February, is/are correct?1. Both countries signed an agreement on inter-linking of domestic debit/credit cards2. An MoU was signed on cooperation in digital infrastructure projects3. Both countries agreed that a Bilateral Investment Treaty shall be signed in the next meeting at the ministerial level. Select the answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: a) 1 and 2 only
ExplanationKey Concept: International Relations Why in news?Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi officaillyl visited to the United Arab Emirates (UAE) from 13 to 14 February 2024. Explanation: During his visit to UAE, PM Narendra Modi met UAE’s President Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan in Abu Dhabi.During this meeting, India and the UAE signed eight pacts to bolster cooperation in key areas.Agreement on inter-linking domestic debit/credit cards - RuPay (India) with JAYWAN (UAE) to enhance the universal acceptance of RuPay across the UAE.Hence, 1 is correct.Bilateral Investment Treaty was signed between two countries.This agreement will be a key enabler for further promoting investments in both countries.Hence, 3 is not correct.A memorandum of understanding (MoU) has also been signed on cooperation in the field of electrical interconnection and trade.MoU on cooperation in Digital Infrastructure Projects which will create a framework for a wide-ranging cooperation, including investment cooperation, in the digital infrastructure sector.Hence, 2 is correct.Agreement on interlinking of the instant payment platforms - UPI (India) and AANI (UAE).This follows the MoU on interlinking payment and messaging systems signed in July 2023 during Hon’ble PM’s visit to Abu Dhabi.MoU for cooperation in the field of heritage and museums was also | | Defence signed.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q238
Which of the following countries chaired the 43rd ASEAN Summit?
✓ Correct answer: c) Indonesia
ExplanationKey Concept: Summits and Conferences Why in news?The 43 ASEAN Summit was held at the Jakarta Convention Center (JCC) on 5-7 September 2023. Explanation: The 43rd Association of Southeast Asian Nations Summit concluded in Jakarta, Indonesia, with the adoption of the ASEAN Leaders’ Declaration on ASEAN as an Epicentrum of Growth.About ASEAN: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a regional grouping that aims to promote economic and security cooperation among its ten members: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.India including the S., China, Japan, and Australia are its dialogue partners.It was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the founding fathers of ASEAN: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.Secretariat: Jakarta, Indonesia.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q239
The National Council of Science Museums (NCSM), which is developing Science Centres/Museums/ Innovation Hubs in India, works under
✓ Correct answer: b) The Ministry of Culture
ExplanationKey Concept: Art and Culture Why in news?The National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with the Arunachal Pradesh government for setting up a Science Centre and Digital Planetarium in January 2024. Explanation: National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) is an autonomous scientific organization functioning under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India for science communication through its network of science museums or science centres spread across India.It is the largest chain of science centers/museums under a single administrative umbrella in the world.There are 24 own science centers or museums and one R & D laboratory and training centre.The NCSM has been built to co-ordinate all informal science communication activities in the museum space in the country.Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q240
Which of the following is NOT one of the pillars of India's 'Foreign Trade Policy- ?
✓ Correct answer: a) Enlarging MFN (Most Favored Nations)
ExplanationKey Concept: Economy Why in news?Foreign Trade Policy 2023 (FTP 2023) of India was launched on 31st March 2023 by the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry.Explanation: Foreign Trade Policy (2023) is a policy document which is based on continuity of time-tested schemes facilitating exports as well as a document which is nimble and responsive to the requirements of trade.It is based on principles of ‘trust’ and ‘partnership’ with exporters.The Key Approach to the policy is based on these 4 pillars: (i) Incentive to Remission (ii) Export promotion through collaboration - Exporters, States, Districts, Indian Missions, (iii) Ease of doing business, reduction in transaction cost and e-initiatives (iv) Emerging Areas – E-Commerce Developing Districts as Export Hubs and streamlining SCOMET policy.The FTP 2023 aims at process re- engineering and automation to facilitate ease of doing business for exporters.It also focuses on emerging areas like dual use high end technology items under SCOMET, facilitating e-commerce export, collaborating with States and Districts for export promotion.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q241
Which of the following statements about 'Vibrant Village Programme' of the Government of India is/are correct?1. It aims at comprehensive development of the identified villages2. Fairs, festivals, sports meet etc. are organized under this programme Select the answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: c) Both 1 and 2
ExplanationKey Concept: Government Schemes Why in news?In July 2024, Government of India reviewed the progress and pushed to expedite and assess the development initiatives under the Vibrant Villages Program for border villages. | | Defence Explanation: Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched on 15th February,2023 for comprehensive development of the select villages in 46 blocks in 19 districts of abutting northern border in the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand and UT of Ladakh.It is a centrally sponsored scheme.The scheme aims at comprehensive development of the identified villages.Hence, statement 1 is correct.It aids to identify and develop the economic drivers based on local natural human and other resources of the border villages on the northern border and development of growth centres on “Hub and Spoke Model'' through promotion of social entrepreneurship, empowerment of youth and women through skill development and entrepreneurship.One of the sectors identified for development is promotion of tourism and culture by augmentation of various tourism related infrastructure, promoting community managed home stays, organizing local fairs & festivals, promotion of eco-tourism, agro- tourism, wellness, wildlife, spiritual& adventure tourism, promotion of local cuisines, etc. Hence, 2 is correct.VVP has been conceived as an outcome oriented programme with outcome indicators at three levels- village, household & individual beneficiary Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q242
Who, amongst the following, has won International Emmy Award- for 'Best Actor'?
✓ Correct answer: d) Martin Freeman
ExplanationKey Concept: Awards and Prize Why in news?The 51st International Emmy Awards ceremony, presented by the International Academy of Television Arts and Sciences (IATAS), took place on November 20, 2023, in New York City.Explanation: The winner of the International Emmy Award 2023 for Best Actor is Martin Freeman for his role in The Responder.He won the award, defeating nominees including Jim Sarbh, who was nominated for Rocket Boys.Other categories of Emmy Awards: Best Drama Series: “The Empress” Best Actress: Karla Souza in “La Caida” (Dive) Best Actor: Martin Freeman in “The Responder” Best TV Movie/Mini-Series: “La Caida” (Dive) Best Non-Scripted Entertainment: “A Ponte – The Bridge Brasil” Best Short-Form Series: “Des Gens Bien Ordinaires” (A Very Ordinary World) Best Live-Action – For Kids: “Heartbreak High” Best Factual And Entertainment For Kids: “Built To Survive” Best Documentary: “Mariupol: The People’s Story” Best Sports Documentary: “Harley and Katya” Best Arts Programming: “Buffy Sainte- Marie: Carry It On” Best Telenovela: “Yargi” (Family Secrets) Best Animation for Kids: “The Smeds and The Smoos” Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q243
Which of the following sectors have been identified as 'critical 'sectors' by the National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre?1. Power and Energy2. Industry3. Banking and Financial services4. Irrigation5. Education Select the answer using the code given below :
✓ Correct answer: b) 1 and 3 only
ExplanationKey Concept: Economy Explanation: The National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) has identified several sectors as 'critical' for national security and economic stability.The critical sectors include: Power & Energy Banking, Financial Services & Insurance Telecommunications Transport Government Strategic & Public Enterprises Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q244
Which one among the following Indian PSUs has been declared as the winner at the Brandon Hall Group's Excellence in Technology Award- ?
✓ Correct answer: a) NTPC
ExplanationKey Concept: Awards and Prizes Why in news?NTPC, India's largest integrated power company, has been declared as the winner at the Brandon Hall Group's Excellence in Technology Awards 2023. Explanation: NTPC was the Indian PSU that won multiple awards at the Brandon Hall Group's Excellence in Technology Awards 2023, including two silver awards and two gold awards: Gold Award for Developing Leaders of Tomorrow Gold Award for Best Results in acquiring Certificate of Proficiency for Boiler Operation Engineers Silver Award for Designing an Individual Centric Health Care Ecosystem Silver Award for Technological solution based on AR/VR for augmenting workforce capacity Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q245
JAYWAN is the domestic Debit Card of which of the following countries?
✓ Correct answer: a) UAE
ExplanationKey Concept: International Relations Why in news?Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi officaillyl visited to the United Arab Emirates (UAE) from 13 to 14 February 2024. Explanation: During his visit to UAE, PM Narendra Modi met UAE’s President Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan in Abu Dhabi.During this meeting, India and the UAE signed eight pacts to bolster cooperation in key areas.One of the agreements is: Interlinking Domestic Debit/Credit Cards (RuPay and JAYWAN): Both countries signed a pact on interlinking domestic debit/ credit cards — RuPay (India) with JAYWAN (UAE).It is an important step in building financial sector cooperation and it will enhance the universal acceptance of RuPay across the UAE.UAE’s domestic card JAYWAN is based on the digital RuPay credit and debit card stack.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q246
Consider the following statements :1. The Finance Commission used fiscal effort as a criterion for horizontal devolution unlike the Finance Commission2. Both the and the Finance Commission used pre demographic variables as a criteria for horizontal devolution Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✓ Correct answer: a) 1 only
ExplanationKey Concept: Polity Why in news?The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted on November 27, 2017 and made recommendations covering the period of six years valid upto the financial year 2025-26. Explanation: The 15th Finance Commission was chaired under N.K. Singh.The 15th Finance Commission introduced the "Tax Effort" criterion, which was not emphasized in the same way by the 14th Finance Commission.The 15th Finance Commission computed this by considering the 2011 population metric along with tax revenue efficiency, marking a shift from previous practices.Hence, 1 is correct.This criterion has been used to reward states with higher tax collection efficiency.It is measured as the ratio of the average per capita own tax revenue and the average per capita state GDP during the three years between 2016-17 and 2018-19. The Terms of Reference of the Commission required it to use the population data of 2011 while making recommendations.15th Finance Commission used the 2011 population as a criterion for horizontal devolution, along with other factors such as income, area, forest and ecology, demographic performance, and tax effort whereas the 14th Finance Commission utilized data from the 1971 Census.Hence, 2 is not correct.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q247
Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar, 2024' under the category of Vigyan Ratna Award' was given to
✓ Correct answer: a) Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan
ExplanationKey Concept: Person in news Explanation: The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar, 2024 under the category of Vigyan Ratna Award was awarded to Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan is a pioneer in molecular biology and biotechnology research in India, notably recognized for his work on malaria parasites.He has been honored with prestigious awards like the Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan previously.The Vigyan Ratna Award is given for lifetime contributions in the field of Science and Technology.In the first edition of the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2024, Prof. Padmanabhan received the top category Vigyan Ratna Award.The awards ceremony was held at Rashtrapati Bhavan with the President of India Smt. Droupadi Murmu presenting the awards.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q248
The 2024 ОРCW (Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons) - The Hague Award has been conferred upon which one of the following organizations?
✓ Correct answer: a) The Indian Chemical Council
ExplanationKey Concept: Awards and Prizes Explanation: The 2024 OPCW (Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons) - The Hague Award has been conferred upon the Indian Chemical Council (ICC).The award was presented during the 29th Session of the Conference of the States Parties to the Chemical Weapons Convention at The Hague on November 25, 2024. This is the first time the award has recognized the efforts of a chemical industry body.The ICC represents over 80% of the Indian chemical industry and has played a critical role in promoting chemical safety, compliance with the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC), and enhancing industry-wide chemical security.ICC initiatives like the Chemical Weapons Convention Helpdesks, Nicer Globe (real-time monitoring and emergency response for chemical transportation), and the Responsible Care program have been key in advancing safe and responsible practices in the industry.The OPCW-The Hague Award was established in 2014 to recognize significant contributions towards the global effort to eliminate chemical weapons.The OPCW was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2013 for its efforts to eliminate chemical weapons.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q249
Which among the following statements with regard to Grameen Bharat Mahotsav, 2025 is/are correct?1. It aims at promoting economic stability and financial security among rural population.2. It focuses on financial inclusion and supporting sustainable agricultural practices. Select the answer using the code given below.
✓ Correct answer: c) Both 1 and 2
ExplanationKey Concept: National news Explanation: The Grameen Bharat Mahotsav 2025 was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi aiming to build a resilient rural India aligned with the vision of Viksit Bharat 2047. Its objectives include: Promoting economic stability and financial security among the rural population, especially focusing on rural entrepreneurship and self-reliance.Focusing on financial inclusion and supporting sustainable agricultural practices, including workshops on organic farming, rural women entrepreneurship, and | | Defence development of agriculture in the North-East.The event also aims to foster innovation, enhance rural infrastructure, empower women, and showcase India’s rich cultural heritage.It is jointly organized by the Department of Financial Services and NABARD, among other stakeholders.The Mahotsav runs from January 4 to 9, 2025. Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q250
India and Poland have agreed to implement the India-Poland Strategic Partnership' in terms of a Five-Year Action Plan. Identify the current Five-Year Action Plan.
✓ Correct answer: c) Action Plan 2024-28
ExplanationKey Concept: International Relations Explanation: India and Poland agreed to elevate their bilateral relations to a Strategic Partnership during Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to Poland in August 2024. Following this, both sides formulated and agreed to execute a Five-Year Action Plan for 2024-2028. The plan focuses on multiple areas including political dialogue, defense and security cooperation, trade and investment, climate and technology, transport and connectivity, and counter- terrorism.It also includes priority cooperation in high-tech sectors, renewable energy, cybersecurity, space exploration, and social security agreements.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q251
'Collaboration for the Intelligent Age' was the theme of a meeting convened in 2025 under the aegis of:
✓ Correct answer: a) The World Economic Forum
ExplanationKey Concept: Summits and Conferences Explanation: The theme "Collaboration for the Intelligent Age" was the theme of the World Economic Forum Annual Meeting 2025 held in Davos, Switzerland.This meeting brought together global leaders from government, business, and civil society to discuss pressing global issues under this theme, emphasizing cooperation, technology, sustainability, and inclusive growth in the emerging intelligent age driven by artificial intelligence and other advanced technologies Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q252
India's key climate targets include1. Reduction of 33%-35% in greenhouse gas emissions intensity by 20302. Increase in non-fossil fuel energy capacity to 500 GW3. Achieving net-zero emissions by 2070 Select the answer using the code given below.
✓ Correct answer: c) 1, 2 and 3
ExplanationKey Concept: Environment Explanation: The Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA) to be led by India, Brazil and the United States, as leading biofuel producers and consumers, will greatly help achieve the MDG Goals of India turning Net Zero by 2070. India stands at the forefront of addressing the global challenge of Climate Change and has committed to an ambitious Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) of reducing emission intensity by 33-35% in 2030 against the levels of year 2005. India is set to achieve its short term and long term targets under the Panchamrit action plan, like- reaching a non-fossil fuel energy capacity of 500 GW by 2030; fulfilling at least half of its energy requirements via renewable energy by 2030; reducing CO2 emissions by 1 billion tons by 2030. Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q253
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?1. The National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM) was approved by the Union Cabinet, Government of India, in the year 2023.2. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India, has launched the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme of India. Select the answer using the code given below.
✓ Correct answer: a) 1 only
ExplanationKey Concept: Environment Explanation: The National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM) was approved by the Union Cabinet in January 2023. The mission aims to make India a global hub for the production, usage, and export of green hydrogen, with a target to produce 5 million tonnes per annum of green hydrogen by 2030. It includes various components for demand creation, electrolyser manufacturing incentives, pilot projects, and green hydrogen hubs However, the Green Hydrogen Certification Scheme was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q254
Which of the following statements with regard to the National Manufacturing Mission' is/are correct?1. It covers small, medium and large industries.2. It will support cleantech manufacturing.3. It will facilitate promotion of employment opportunities in labour-intensive sectors. Select the answer using the code given below.
✓ Correct answer: d) 1,2 and 3
ExplanationKey Concept: Government Schemes Explanation: The National Manufacturing Mission (NMM), announced in the Union Budget 2025-26, supports industries of all sizes— small, medium, and large—to further the "Make in India" initiative and strengthen domestic manufacturing.Supports cleantech manufacturing: The mission prioritizes cleantech manufacturing, fostering the domestic production ecosystem for solar PV cells, EV batteries, electrolyzers for hydrogen production, wind turbines, and other clean energy components.This is aligned with India’s climate goals and renewable energy transition.Facilitates employment in labour- intensive sectors: The mission includes provisions to promote employment and entrepreneurship in labour-intensive sectors like footwear, leather products, and toys.Specific schemes aim to enhance productivity, quality, competitiveness, and job creation in these areas Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q255
Which among the following States is not a part of the Purvodaya development initiative of the Government of India?
✓ Correct answer: b) Chhattisgarh
ExplanationKey Concept: Polity Explanation: The Purvodaya initiative, launched primarily by the Ministry of Steel and supported by the Union Budget 2024, targets the eastern states of India focused on boosting infrastructure, industrial growth, and human resource development.The five states officially included in the Purvodaya scheme are: Bihar Jharkhand West Bengal | | Defence Odisha Andhra Pradesh Although Chhattisgarh is an important mineral-rich state, it is not included in the Purvodaya development initiative focusing on the eastern region's revival.The initiative aims to leverage the mineral wealth, cultural heritage, and industrial potential of these five eastern states to transform the region into a major economic powerhouse by 2047. Hence, the correct answer is b.
Q256
Which of the following statements is/are correct about recently elected Chancellor of Germany Mr. Friedrich Merz?1. He lost in the first round of voting.2. His coalition includes Christian Democratic Union and Christian Social Union. Select the answer using the code given below.
✓ Correct answer: c) Both 1 and 2
ExplanationKey Concept: Person in News Explanation: Friedrich Merz, the newly elected Chancellor of Germany, failed to secure the required absolute majority of votes in the first round of parliamentary voting on May 6, 2025. He received 310 votes but needed 316, marking the first time in post-war German history that a chancellor candidate did not win in the initial round.His coalition includes Christian Democratic Union (CDU) and Christian Social Union (CSU):Merz leads the CDU, which forms a coalition with the CSU, its Bavarian sister party.The coalition government also involved the Social Democratic Party (SPD) to form a majority and enable his appointment as Chancellor after the second vote.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q257
Which one of the following statements with reference to Jal Jeevan Mission is not correct?
✓ Correct answer: a) It was established in the year 2016
ExplanationKey Concept: Schemes Explanation: The Jal Jeevan Mission was launched on 15 August 2019 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, not in 2016. It is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at providing functional household tap water connections (FHTCs) to every rural household by 2024, ensuring safe and adequate drinking water supply.The mission focuses on improving the quality of life in rural areas through clean tap water supply, significantly reducing collection time and improving health outcomes.It has a funding pattern between Centre and States, typically 50:50 for most states, 90:10 for Himalayan and North- Eastern states, and 100% for Union Territories, confirming its nature as a centrally sponsored scheme Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q258
The NISAR Mission is a joint collaboration between ISRO and which other space agency?
✓ Correct answer: b) NASA
ExplanationNISAR is a joint Earth-observing mission between NASA and the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).NASA and ISRO are providing two radars that are optimized each in their way to allow the mission to observe a wider range of changes than either one alone.NISAR will detect movements of the planet’s surface as small as 0.4 inches over areas about half the size of a tennis court.Hence, the correct answer is NASA
Q259
Narain Karthikeyan is a sportsman in the field of?
✓ Correct answer: d) Formula one car racing
ExplanationNarain Karthikeyan is a pioneering Indian motorsport athlete best known as India’s first Formula One (F1) driver.He made his F1 debut in 2005 with the Jordan Grand Prix team, marking a historic moment for Indian motorsport.During his F1 career, he competed in 48 Grands Prix, starting 46 races, and scored a total of five championship points, notably finishing fourth at the 2005 United States Grand Prix—a race famous for its unusual circumstances where only six cars competed due to tire safety concerns Hence, the correct answer is d.
Q260
From which Country did India procure the aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov, to join Indian Navy as INS Vikramaditya?
✓ Correct answer: a) Russia
ExplanationIndia procured the aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov from Russia, where it was originally built and served in the Soviet and later Russian Navy before being extensively refurbished and commissioned into the Indian Navy as INS Vikramaditya.India entered into negotiations with Russia and, after several years, finalized a deal in 2004 for the purchase and extensive refurbishment of the vessel.Hence, the correct answer is a.
Q261
The World Economic Outlook Report is published by?
✓ Correct answer: c) IMF
ExplanationThe World Economic Outlook (WEO) is a flagship report of the International Monetary Fund.It provides detailed analysis and projections of the global economy, including: GDP growth forecasts Inflation trends Trade balances Policy challenges for member countries The WEO is published twice a year — typically in April and October.Hence, the correct answer is c.
Q262
MALABAR is a Naval exercise between India and:
✓ Correct answer: b) USA
ExplanationExercise MALABAR is a naval exercise that originally began in 1992 as a bilateral exercise between India and the United States.Over time, it has expanded to include Japan and Australia as permanent partners, but the foundational partnership is between India and the USA.Hence, the correct answer is b.
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